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Exam Code: C2040-416
Exam Name: IBM Kenexa LMS and LCMS Premier Fundamentals
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Exam Code: P2070-074
Exam Name: IBM Information Mgmt Content Manager Tech Mastery Test V1
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NO.1 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.2 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.3 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What
would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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NO.4 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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NO.5 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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C2040-442 Test Questions, M2010-719 Exam Cram, P2080-034 PDF VCE

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Exam Code: C2040-442
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino Fundamentals
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Exam Code: M2010-719
Exam Name: Cloud and Smarter Infrastructure Storage Sales Mastery Test v5
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Exam Code: P2080-034
Exam Name: IBM Tealeaf Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 How does an IBM Domino server determine which documents to replicate for an application?
A. Only those documents marked for replication by the user are replicated.
B. The Domino server checks each document for the "$Has_Replicated" field.
C. The Domino server checks replication history and replicates only those documents that have
changed since the last replication.
D. The LastUpdated property of the application is checked. The Domino server replicates only
those documents added since the LastUpdatedtime.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which server feature is responsible for name changes and database ACL updates?
A. Name Change Process
B. Replication
C. Extended ACL
D. Administration Process
Answer: D

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NO.3 Robin is developing an XPage application, but she mistakenly closed the Controls and Data
views
in IBM Domino Designer. How can Robin reopen these views?
A. From the Window menu, select XPages under the 'Open Perspective' submenu.
B. Enable the 'XPages views' option on the XPage tab of the Application Properties.
C. In the Domino Designer Preferences on the XPage section, check the Controls and Data view
options.
D. In the Application Navigator, right-click on the XPage application and enable the Controls and
Data view options.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In order for AdminP to work properly, what must every IBM Domino database have?
A. an AdminP certifier
B. an AdminP xACL entry
C. an AdminP retry interval
D. an Administration server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Mary Beth and Kathleen work in the same department. From time to time, they need to see
what
the other one is doing when they show as 'busy' in their calendar. What minimum level of
delegation would Mary Beth need to give Kathleen so that Kathleen can view calendar entries?
A. Automatic forwarding
B. Read, create, edit and delete for Mail
C. Read access for Calendar, To Do and Contacts
D. Read access to Mail, Calendar, To Do and Contacts
Answer: C

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6. James has enabled the Recipients Icons option and notices that no icon is displayed for a
message. Why would no icon be displayed for a message where he is the recipient?
A. James is in the BCC field. When the recipient is in the BCC field, no icon is displayed.
B. The message was sent using an alias name. Messages using an alias do not reflect an icon.
C. James is in the CC field. Only messages where the user is in the To field will reflect the icon.
D. James is also the sender. Messages where the recipient is also the sender do not reflect an
icon.
Answer: A

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7. Max has an application that her company's Chicago office uses on their Chicago server. She
would like her company's Boston office to access the same application on their Boston server but
needs for changes to each application to be kept in sync. How should Max create the application
on the Boston server?
A. Max should create a new copy of the application on the Boston server.
B. Max should create a new replica of the application on the Boston server.
C. Max should create a new application based off the template on the Boston server.
D. Max should create a new application based off the Single Copy Template on the Boston server.
Answer: B

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8. If a valid mail rule action does not work, which action type may have been disabled by the
system
administrator?
A. send copy to
B. copy to folder
C. delete message
D. change importance to
Answer: A

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9. Which of the following statements describes the IBM Domino Roaming Server?
A. The Domino Roaming Server is always a mail server.
B. The Domino Roaming Server is always an application server.
C. The Domino Roaming Server is always the home mail server.
D. The Domino Roaming Server can be, but is not always, the home or mail server.
Answer: D

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10. If a mobile device is lost or stolen, an administrator can issue a remote wipe command to
remove
all sensitive data from the device. What application would the administrator use to perform the
action?
A. Traveler.nsf
B. TravConf.nsf
C. IBM Notes Traveler Remote Administrator
D. IBM Domino Administrator client
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2150-810
Exam Name: IBM Security AppScan Source Edition Implementation
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Exam Code: C2070-588
Exam Name: IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1
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NO.1 To scan JavaScript included within an ASP.NET application, which additional steps must be
completed to ensure these artifacts are scanned?
A. Create a C# project type
B. Import the Visual Studio Solution
C. Build a build.xml file and add it to the application project
D. Manually create a JavaScript project type and add it to the application
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the difference between AppScan Source Developer and AppScan Source Remediation
licenses?
A. AppScan Source for Remediation supports only Visual Studio while AppScan Source for Developer
supports both Eclipse and Visual Studio.
B. AppScan Source Developer allows you to run scans from CLI, while AppScan Source Remediation
allows you only to remediate security issues.
C. AppScan Source Developer allows you only to remediate security issues, while AppScan Source
Remediation allows you to run scans from within the IDE.
D. AppScan Source Developer allows you to run scans from within the IDE, while AppScan Source
Remediation allows you only to remediate security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You just scanned an application with over total 10,000 findings. Many of the findings are in a
particular API, which you know is not vulnerable.
Without re-scanning the application, what should you do to reduce the number of visible findings in
the assessment?
A. Create a custom rule.
B. Create a custom filter.
C. Set the severity of each finding to Info.
D. Set the vulnerability type of each finding to null.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are reviewing a thick client application and come upon File Injection findings in a function
that opens zip files and extracts data from them, but the customer you are working with tells you
that the data is sanitized using a method mySanitizer.validateZip(..). You confirm this and decideto
remove this vulnerability and other File Injection findings with sanitized data using the Remove
functionality of the Trace section in the Filter Editor.
What do you need to do in the Trace Rule Entry dialog to ensure that the rule you create applies only
to this application's zip extractor and not all File Inclusion findings?
A. Specify Sink method name.
B. Specify File Inclusion as Sink property.
C. Specify File Inclusion as Source property.
D. Add validateZipO to the Required Calls section.
E. Add validateZipO to the Prohibited Calls section.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two licenses can be used for AppScan Source IDE plug-ins?
A. IBM Security AppScan Source for Quality
B. IBM Security AppScan Source for Analysis
C. IBM Security AppScan Source for Developer
D. IBM Security AppScan Source for Automation
E. IBM Security AppScan Source for Remediation
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which two languages can be scanned by the AppScan Source CLI?
A. C++
B. Java
C. Fortran
D. Haskell
E. ActionScript
Answer: A,B

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Reference:https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSS9LM_9.0.0/com.ibm.rational.apps
cansrc.install.d oc/topics/system_requirements_language_support.html?cp=SSS9LM_9.0.0%2F1-2-
00&lang=en

NO.7 What is the best practice for scanning an Android application?
A. Import Workspace, Scan Application
B. Install Eclipse IDE, Scan Application
C. Add JAVA files manually, Add Dependencies. Scan Application
D. Verify build succeeds in Eclipse. Import Workspace, Scan Application
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are reviewing an online shopping application and find a lost sink method called
combineltemListsf..,) that is provided by a third-party shopping framework. This method combines
two lists of items (provided as arguments) into one.
Which type of custom rule do you need to create for this method?
A. Sink
B. Source
C. Taint Propagator
D. Tainted Callback
E. Not Susceptible to Taint
Answer: C

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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/appsrc/v8r5/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.ratio
nal.appscansrc.security.doc%2Ftopics%2Fcustomizing_the_db_rules_wizard.html

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Exam Code: C2180-275
Exam Name: Blueworks Live IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition, V8.0 BPM Analysis
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Exam Code: C2090-304
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere QualityStage v9.1 Solution Developer
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NO.1 A new employee just started working with a company and only received their laptop in week 4.
The BPM analyst investigated the cause:
-Equipment was not ordered until week 2
-The manager did not complete the new hire checklist.
-The manager did not know how to access the checklist.
-No one communicated to the manager how to access the checklist.
-No communication plan for the on-boarding process.
-The root cause of the initial problem was that no one communicated to the manager there was a
checklist.
Which tool did the BPM analyst use in order to find out the root cause?
A. 5 Whys
B. 5 Whats
C. 5 Whens
D. 5 Whos
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company that processes applications has been using IBM Business Process Manager V8.0
over the last year. The company has asked IBM to analyze its processes in production because it
wants to continue improving its processes. The IBM BPM team sends a BPM analyst. What should
the BPM analyst do?
A. Use the Discovery View in Blueworks Live to perform inspection on the process.
B. Use the Analyze feature in Blueworks Live to perform Historical and Simulation Analysis.
C. Use the Optimizer in IBM Business Process Manager V8.0 to perform Historical and Simulation
Analysis.
D. Use the Process Inspector in IBM Business Process Manager V8.0 to perform inspection on the
process.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BPM analyst is helping to identify and select the appropriate solution for process
improvement in a large BPM project. What are the business levers the BPM analyst should focus on?
A. Policy, Technology, Organization and People
B. Policy, Data, Organization and People
C. Process, Technology, Organization and People
D. Process, Data, Organization and People
Answer: C

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NO.4 On a project, the BPM analyst defined the following to identify the Key Performance Indicator
(KPI):
-The goal of the project was to improve the efficiency of the process.
-The concern was that the process was not fast enough.
-The Critical to Quality (CTQ) was the speed of the process.
-The client was interested in the cycle time of the process.
-The time stamps at the beginning and at the end of the process are captured.
Which step did the BPM analyst fail to perform in identifying the KPI?
A. Know the client objectives
B. Know how to define the client's KPI
C. Know the process decision makers
D. Know the client's Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
Answer: C

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NO.5 A BPM analyst is documenting process problems during a discovery session. As a problem is
raised, what are the two key factors the BPM analyst needs to capture about each problem to be
able to prioritize them later?
A. The solution to the problem.
B. When the problem first occurred and how often it occurred in each milestone.
C. Severity and frequency of the problem at the process, milestone, or activity level.
D. Who is the participant when the problem occurs and what other tasks does that participant
complete.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM analyst is conducting interviews with the participants of a business process. What
feedback about the process should the BPM analyst look out for that might not be obvious in an
as-is process diagram?
A. Excessive reviews
B. Too many participants
C. Identification of bottlenecks
D. Not enough system automation
Answer: C

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NO.7 A BPM analyst is performing a process inventory analysis at a company that has many
processes and has gathered all required information to calculate a priority value for each process in
order to rank them. How should the BPM analyst compute this?
A. Provide a scale and weight for each activity in the process.
B. Provide a scale for each of the prioritization criterion and weigh the criteria against the processes.
C. Have the customer and the BPM analyst provide 2 different priority values independently and
calculate 1 priority value.
D. Count the number of activities in diagram and evaluate the complexity of the diagram to provide
a value and calculate a priority value.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A BPM analyst is modeling the process for acquiring membership at a club. The BPM analyst
interviewed the front office supervisor, who provided the following description of the first activity
"Enter Application": "One of our receptionists receives a paper application from a potential client,
an applicant. The receptionist first looks up the client's name and address to see if it exists in our
system, then enters the information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a
membership number to the application. When the application entry is complete, the receptionist
sends it to the manager for an initial review." The BPM analyst has created the discovery map and
now needs to enter information from the above description into the Details fields in Blueworks Live
for the activity "Enter Application". For the activity "Enter Application", who is the Supplier?
A. Manager
B. Applicant
C. Receptionist
D. Front Office Supervisor
Answer: B

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NO.1 An application developer has a file which consists of fixed length records.
The first record is a header record followed by some number of detail records.
The number of detail records is expressed by a value found in the header record.
How does the developer define this type of data in WebSphere Transformation Extender?
A. Index the input based on the count in the header record.
B. Use a Map function to keep track of how many detail records there are.
C. Write a custom function to store the number of detail records in the map context.
D. Use a component rule to compare the current record to the value found in the header.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The structure of the following file has been partially defined in a type tree:
~Smith~Robert~Programmer<NL> ~Doe~John~Manager<NL>
The properties of the types have not been completely defined.
Which of the following options defines the properties for the use of the tilde (~) character in the
sample file?
A. Define ~ as a floating component of the Record type.
B. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the File type.
C. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the Record type.
D. Define ~ character as the initiator and terminator of LastName and FirstName types and initiator
of Title type.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Refer to image shown here:
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the type trees created using the XML
Schema Importer.
A. The trees were created with different schemas.
B. One tree was created using XSDL Hints and Xerces validation.
C. One tree was created using Classic validation and XSDL Hints.
D. One tree was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.D.One tree
was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about syntax items is TRUE?
A. They must have a restriction list.
B. They have a maximum length of 1 byte.
C. The value must come from the input data.
D. They cannot be used as variable initiators.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The image here shows the components of a purchase order:
The application requires that the total number of items (TotalItems) in the Trailer Record equals the
sum of the quantity ordered (QtyOrdered) for each purchase order.
This verification can be performed by a component rule. Which component should have the
component rule?
A. TotalItems
B. QtyOrdered
C. Detail Record
D. Trailer Record
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the primary difference between a choice group and a partitioned group?
A. A choice group requires that data must be distinguishable; a partitioned group does not.
B. A partitioned group requires that data must be distinguishable; a choice group does not.
C. A choice group can have both items and groups as components; a partition group can only have
groups as subtypes.
D. A partitioned group can contain both items and groups as components; a choice group can only
contain groups as components.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of syntax items? Syntax items:
A. are limited to 10 bytes.
B. can only be defined as character data.
C. can be defined as character or binary data.
D. are used as separators between portions of data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of a component rule? A component rule:
A. is used to create output.
B. is used for data validation.
C. can refer to any other component in the component list.
D. is always evaluated even if an optional component is not present in the data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 What does not require a connection with the IBM Sametime Media server?
A. IBM DB2
B. Sametime Proxy server
C. Sametime Meeting server
D. Sametime System Console
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which step must be completed before running the installation wizard for IBM Connections
4.0?
A. disconnect all database connections
B. install IBM Cognos Business Intelligence
C. stop IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
D. start IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 How would an administrator rebuild the placecatalog.nsf database on an IBM Lotus Quickr
server?
A. run the command load qptool rebuild -placecatalog
B. run the command load qptool recreate -placecatalog
C. bring down the server, delete the placecatalog.nsf database at the operating system level, and
restart the server
D. log into Lotus Quickr using a browser, go to the Site Administration link, and click the Recreate
PlaceCatalog button
Answer: C

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NO.4 What could improve chat performance in a large deployment?
A. decrease the IBM WebSphere logging level
B. add more servers to the Meeting server cluster
C. separate the Media Manager components into individual servers
D. increase the MaxUsersPort setting in the Microsoft Windows server registry
Answer: D

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NO.5 Along with Login ID, which two options are required so that a developer can use the User SPI
to
retrieve more information about a person? (Choose two.)
A. Title
B. Address
C. Date of Birth
D. E-mail Address
E. Unique User ID
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 If the administrator wants the IBM Lotus Quickr Connectors to install without prompting the
user at
all, what should be included after qkrconn.exe /install?
A. /quiet
B. /silent
C. /noask
D. /noprompt
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which component is required to deploy the IBM Sametime Web client?
A. Sametime Proxy
B. Sametime Media
C. Sametime Connect
D. Sametime Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.8 By default, which address accesses the IBM Cognos server Content Manager?By default, which
address accesses the IBM Cognos server? Content Manager?
A. http://Host_Name/Context_Root/servlet
B. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/servlet
C. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/cognos
D. http://Host_Name:Port/CongosServer/Context_Root/servlet
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_TERP10_66
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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 In customer master data, payment terms are defined in which area? (Choose the correct
answer)
A. General data
B. Sales area data
C. Company Code data
D. Conditions data
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the highest organizational unit in Sales Order management? (Choose the correct
answer)
A. Client
B. Company Code
C. Sales Organization
D. Plant
Answer: B

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NO.3 In Logistics Execution, you can start the process for only a Goods Receipt with an inventory
posting or with the creation of a delivery. (True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Goods issue transactions posted in SAP ERP Materials Management can be assigned to a CO
object.
This type of transaction is called material consumption.
When a goods issue is entered, which Management Accounting master data is used to record the
consumption posting?
A. G/L account
B. Activity type
C. Secondary cost element
D. Primary cost element
Answer: D

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NO.5 The credit management master record consists of which of the following? (Choose all that
apply)
A. Control levels
B. Overview
C. Company code data
D. Control area data
E. General data
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 MySAP Business Suite includes? (Choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.7 Your organization is implementing SAP ERP Logistics Execution. As a project team member,
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Execution. How would you correctly assign the organizational levels?
A. A transportation planning point can be assigned to a plant.
B. Several plant-storage location combinations can be assigned to one warehouse number.
C. A plant-storage location combination can be assigned to multiple warehouse numbers.
D. A plant-storage location and storage area combination can be assigned to one warehouse number.
E. A plant-storage location combination can be assigned to several shipping points.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are explaining SAP ERP Material Planning to your colleagues.
They are interested in learning about the functions of material requirements planning (MRP).
Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of MRP? (Choose two)
A. MRP can be run at the plant level.
B. MRP will first use forward scheduling to calculate the requirement's date.
C. Regenerative MRP planning will plan only those materials that have been subjected to an MRP
change.
D. The suggested procurement quantity results from the lot-sizing procedure that is set in the
material master.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.3 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
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incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.7 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.8 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
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Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.1 When adding a new Authentication Agent record to the RSA Authentication Manager database,
an attempt is made to resolve the hostname of the Agent Host with its IP Address. If the attempt
fails,
A. the administrator can override the hostname/IP Address by using the Auto-Registration option.
B. the Agent is added to the database with a 'Pending' status until it is first used for a successful
authentication.
C. a warning is given that the hostname/IP Address cannot be resolved but the database will allow
the Agent to be added.
D. the administrator must correct the address resolution through DNS or editing the /etc/hosts file
before the Agent can be added to the database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If an administrator creates a new administrative user,
A. by default, the new administrator must use a SecurID token to log in.
B. the administrator creating the new user must have at least a Super Admin role.
C. by default, the new user has permissions identical to the administrator creating the new user.
D. permissions granted to the new user can not exceed those of the administrator creating the new
user.
Answer: D

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6. If a user is NOT a member of an Authentication Manager user group, which of the following
statements is true?
A. The user can not be restricted to certain login times.
B. The user can not be forced to adhere to password polices.
C. The user can not take advantage of Risk-Based authentication.
D. The user can not log on to an unrestricted Authentication Agent.
Answer: A

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7. Of the following RSA Authentication Manager components, which one is most likely to be
located in a network DMZ?
A. Web Tier
B. Risk Engine
C. Replica Server
D. Authentication Agent
Answer: A

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8. Token expiration dates;
A. Appear on the token display thirty days prior to expiration.
B. Are programmed into a token record at the time of manufacture.
C. Vary according to the date set by the administrator when assigning the token.
D. Depend on the clock in the Authentication Agent to determine if the token is active.
Answer: B

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9. Which of the following services is NOT an option to users through the Self-Service Console?
A. Changing a password or PIN
B. Creating an individual PIN policy
C. Requesting a replacement token
D. Resynchronizing an RSA SecurID token
Answer: B

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10. Can multiple Identity Sources be established from the same LDAP directory?
A. Yes, if the mapped Organizational Units (OUs) do not overlap.
B. Yes, if duplicate attribute values do not exist in the LDAP directory.
C. No - only one LDAP directory can be mapped to one Identity Source.
D. Yes, if no duplicate passwords exist in the LDAP directory (unique password for each user).
Answer: A

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NO.3 If a user is seeking help after receiving an 'Access Denied' message, which Security Console
function would help locate the activity?
A. Reporting
B. Token record
C. User activation record
D. Administrative Activity Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user who is enabled for Risk-Based Authentication will likely be associated with what other
authentication method?
A. PIN-less SecurID token.
B. On-Demand Authentication.
C. Emergency Access Passcode.
D. Digital Certificate Authentication.
Answer: B

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NO.5 If all users are denied access when they attempt to authenticate to an RSA Authentication
Manager instance, the problem might be that
A. the licensed number of users has been exceeded.
B. the Authentication Manager services are not running.
C. all Agent node secrets have been cleared by the users.
D. the Super Admin administrator has left the instance in debug mode.
Answer: B

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NO.1 A company is about to begin work on a large construction project to build four new buildings
for a bank that wants to open new branches. The sponsor is writing a project charter. She recalls that
a previous project the company performed for another bank ran over budget because the team had
underestimated the effort required to install the reinforced walls in the vault. The previous project
manager had documented the details of the lessons learned from this project. Where should the
sponsor look for these lessons learned?
A. The company's organizational process assets
B. The project records management system
C. The project's work performance information
D. The project's performance reports
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Lessons learned from past projects are always part of a company's organizational process assets, and
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they're not where you find lessons learned.

NO.2 During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be performed to
produce the deliverables in the WBS identified and documented?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Define Activities
C. Sequence Activities
D. Develop Schedule
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is FALSE about project deliverable?
A. Outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself.
B. You should formally describe the final deliverable of the project at the beginning of the project.
C. project deliverable are described during project planning.
D. project deliverable are determined by the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
project deliverable are determined by the project sponsor. project deliverable are outcome that must
be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself. You should formally describe the
final deliverable of the project at the beginning of the project. Only statement B is wrong because
project deliverable are defined in project charter not in planning phase.

NO.4 Key Management skills include:
A. Negotiating
B. All of the other alternatives apply
C. Leading
D. Communicating
Answer: B

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Explanation:
All options are key management skills.

NO.5 The "Cost of quality" project management concept includes ____?
A. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements
B. The costs of ensuring that requirements are conformed to.
C. The costs incurred when requirements are exceeded.
D. The costs involved with quality control requirements.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You need to determine when to release resources from your project. Which part of the
staffing management plan will be most useful for this?
A. Training needs
B. Resource histogram
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Safety procedures
Answer: B

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One of the most important elements of the staffing management plan is the timetable, which tells
you who will work on what, and when they will be released from the project. One of the most
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timetable will let you know exactly when you plan to release your project resources.

NO.7 The Monitor and Control Project Work process is performed to monitor project processes and
performance. Which of the following are you LEAST concerned with during this process?
A. Analyzing and tracking project risks
B. Providing information to support status reporting
C. Assessing performance to determine whether corrective actions are necessary
D. Comparing actual performance against project management plan
E. Maintaining the integrity of baselines by releasing only approved changes
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which is not an example of a correctly handled Contract closure procedure?
A. Early termination of a contract because of arepudiatory breach
B. Settling and finally closing the contract agreement
C. Early termination of a contract because of an immaterial breach
D. Product verification by stakeholders and administrative closure
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the output of the following code?
echo "1" + 2 * "0x02";
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 20
E. 7
Answer: C

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6. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 'a'; $b = 'b';
echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = 'c').'d';
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Answer: B

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7. What super-global should be used to access information about uploaded files via a POST
request?
A. $_SERVER
B. $_ENV
C. $_POST
D. $_FILES
E. $_GET
Answer: D

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8. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 3;
switch ($a) { case 1: echo 'one'; break; case 2: echo 'two'; break; default: echo 'four'; break; case 3:
echo 'three'; break;
}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

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9. What is the output of the following code?
echo "22" + "0.2", 23 . 1;
A. 220.2231
B. 22.2231
C. 22.2,231
D. 56.2
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following may be used in conjunction with CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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11. What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1

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NO.1 During an upgrade, the ESXi 5.x installer finds an existing version of ESXi and a VMFS3 volume.
No virtual machines exist on the host or VMFS3 volume. The requirement is to upgrade to VMFS5.
Which option should be chosen to meet this requirement?
A. Upgrade ESXi and preserve the VMFS datastore
B. Install ESXi and preserve the VMFS datastore
C. Install ESXi and overwrite the VMFS datastore
D. Upgrade ESXi and overwrite the VMFS datastore
Answer: C

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storage device.
Which type of virtual disk can be added to the virtual machine to meet these requirements?
A. A virtual disk on a VMFS datastore
B. A raw device mapped disk in virtual compatibility mode
C. A raw device mapped disk in physical compatibility mode
D. A virtual disk on an NFS datastore
Answer: C

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What should the vSphere administrator do to resolve the issue?
A. Migrate the virtual machine to a standard switch that has been configured for ingress traffic
shaping
B. Configure the distributed switch to which the virtual machine is connected for ingress traffic
shaping
C. Migrate the virtual machine to a different port group on the same distributed switch
D. Enable Network I/O Control on the standard switch to which the virtual machine is connected
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two services can be enabled on VMkernel adapters for an ESXi 5.5 host through the
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A. Fault Tolerance Traffic
B. Virtual SAN Traffic
C. iSCSI Traffic
D. Virtual Machine Traffic
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NO.5 An administrator attempts to install vCenter Single Sign-On Server. The installer returns an
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Which two files should the administrator analyze to determine the cause of the failure? (Choose
two.)
A. <SSO_Server_Directory>\utils\logs\imsTrace.log
B. <SSO_Server_Directory>\utils\logs\install.txt
C. %TEMP%\utils\logs\vminst.log
D. %TEMP%\vminst.log
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true regarding a new vSphere deployment that is using software
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D. Multi-pathing options must be configured in the Boot ROM.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 During a physical network reconfiguration, an ESXi host briefly lost connection to the
management network. High Availability (HA) began powering off the virtual machines residing on
the affected host to be restarted on an unaffected host in the cluster.
Which setting should the administrator configure to prevent this type of HA failover during planned
maintenance?
A. Host isolation response
B. Host monitoring
C. VM monitoring
D. Admission control
Answer: B

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NO.8 During the installation of ESXi, a vmkernel interface can be configured with what capabilities?
A. Management traffic
B. Management traffic and vMotion
C. Management traffic, vMotion, and Fault Tolerance logging
D. Management traffic, vMotion, Fault Tolerance logging, and IP storage
Answer: A

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