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Exam Code: 000-034
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which two places can Workspace Administration Mode permission authority be set? (Choose two.)
A. Users
B. Members
C. Member Of
D. User Groups
E. User Policies
Answer: A, D

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NO.2 What type of link uniquely identifies the target workspace?
A. Dynamic
B. Filtered
C. Relative
D. Absolute
Answer: D

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NO.3 When is persistent event monitoring useful in IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM)?
A. To count the number of events in ITM.
B. To determine when a situation is needed.
C. To determine whether a condition is consistent or intermittent.
D. To determine when more agents must be deployed across a ITM environment.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is used to quickly switch from one workspace to another in the Desktop Portal Client?
A. Link
B. Launch
C. Bookmark
D. Graphic Icon
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the minimum interval for Summarization and Pruning?
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is an example of a data element that can be monitored with a situation?
A. CPU usage.
B. Timestamp for event arrival.
C. Event acknowledgement time.
D. Number of situations deployed.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does a sampled event get closed in IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A sampled event can be manually closed by a user.
B. A sampled event is closed after 60 minutes by default.
C. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it becomes true.
D. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it is no longer true.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How are new managed systems groups created?
A. They are created when IBM Tivoli Monitoring is installed.
B. They are created in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services.
C. They are created using the Object Editor under the Managed Systems Group tab.
D. They are created with the Situation Editor within the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When performing an investigation into the increased disk space usage of a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Agent, it is discovered that the historical data file is quite large. Which two actions will decrease the
amount of data stored in that file? (Choose two.)
A. Change Summarization from Daily to Hourly.
B. Reduce the Warehouse Interval from 1 day to 1 hour.
C. Increase the Warehouse Interval from 1 hour to 12 hours.
D. Increase the Collection Interval from 1 minute to 15 minutes.
E. Decrease the Collection Interval from 30 minutes to 5 minutes.
Answer: B, D

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NO.10 How is it determined if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. Launch the Situation Editor from the toolbar.
B. Right click the Required Navigator Item and select Situations.
C. Select the properties for the Navigator Item and click Situations.
D. Filter the situations for the Navigator item by Associated with Navigator Item.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where are attributes to be displayed in a workspace view selected?
A. In the Query tab of each workspace Properties.
B. In the Filters tab of each workspace Properties.
C. In the Query tab of each workspace view's Properties.
D. In the Filters tab of each workspace view's Properties.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What determines the eligibility of a situation to a Navigator item?
A. Situation type.
B. Situation event state.
C. Managed systems associated with the Navigator item.
D. All situations are eligible for association with any Navigator item.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where are policies designed in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client?
A. In the Views.
B. In the Workspace.
C. In the Workflow Editor.
D. In the Situation Editor.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two items are managed by right clicking an agent in a navigator tree? (Choose two.)
A. Queries
B. Policies
C. Situations
D. Attributes
E. Attribute Groups
Answer: B, C

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NO.15 What are the three default user groups provided with Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Operator
B. Administrator, Application Users, Operator
C. Application Users, Diagnostic Users, Operator
D. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Application Users
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which workspace chart best represents the proportional value of each data point to the whole.?
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Plot Chart
D. Circular Gauge Chart
Answer: A

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NO.17 How are attributes related to workspaces?
A. Workspaces use views to display attributes to the user.
B. Workspaces use attributes to determine graph types to display to the user.
C. Workspace settings are stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server using attributes.
D. Workspaces use attributes to determine which navigator items to associate with in the Navigator tree.
Answer: A

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NO.18 When can an acknowledgement be created?
A. When others are working on the event.
B. When operations staff makes a request.
C. When an event indicator is visible in the Navigator.
D. When a situation fires and the administrator wants to be first to acknowledge the event.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is provided for a user to view agent specific IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) data when Application
Support is installed and configured on ITM components?
A. Workspaces, Users, Events
B. Workspaces, Situations, Queries
C. Expert Advice, Charts, Templates
D. Situations, Queries, Take Actions
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the purpose of the connectors in a Common Event Console?
A. The Event Handler is incorporated to pass events.
B. Connect to an event repository for the Common Event Console.
C. Retrieve event data to be displayed in the Common Event Console.
D. Send messages to the Message Log view from the Common Event Console.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-172
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Program management )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Once the discovery map is done and the process diagram view is generated, any updates made in
the process diagram view must be verified and validated in the discovery map view.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.2 A big automobile manufacturer is mapping their high level process in IBM BPM Blueprint. Select
the correct list of milestones that makes the most sense (consider both logical sequence of the
milestone, as well as the best practice naming convention). ?
A. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Ship the
car through a preferred vendor
B. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble components; 3. Perform rework if it fails quality
inspection; 4. Product Shipment
C. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Perform rework if it fails
quality inspection; 4. Ship the car through a preferred vendor
D. 1. Procurement of Components; 2. Assembly of Components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Product
Shipment
Answer: D

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NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
Select the option that best describes the process in the diagram?
A. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body.
Once the doors are assembled, the tires and bumpers are fitted to the body of the car. Quality
inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
B. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires and the bumpers to the body of the car. When all the
above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors perform inspection.
C. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. When all the above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors
perform inspection.
D. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. Quality inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Based on IBM BPM Blueprint best practices, while documenting activity details, the Business
Owner role is generally:
A. the business Unit Manager who runs the business
B. the person who is accountable for that particular process
C. the person who has the highest level of understanding of the process
D. the BPM lead who is responsible for implementing business process management
Answer: B

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NO.5 "Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-602
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Technical Support V4)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer is considering consolidating 50 existing Linux x86 servers to Linux on System z.
Which of the following is the best way to create a detailed consolidated sizing for these 50
servers?
A. Collect performance and workload data for CPU busy on the current servers and translate RPE2s into
MIPS, then input the results into
eConfig for a sizing
B. Collect performance data and use it for a Fit for Purpose study to create a sizing
C. Collect performance and workload data from existing servers and share it with IT Architects and
Techline to create a sizing.
D. Use the IBM Workload Estimator (IWE) on the Internet to create the detailed consolidated sizing.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A z800 customer has been acquired by a larger company. The parent company is a z196 customer. The
parent company CIO has told the z800 staff to upgrade from z/OS 1.4 to a supported z/OS version on a
z10 BC. The CIO understands there is no simple supported migration path. The z800 staff plans to
present the parent company CIO four migration options. Which of the following plans will bring them to a
supported environment?
A. Research PSP buckets to ensure all required service is applied to z/OS 1.4
B. Purchase IBM Lifecycle Extension for z/OS 1.7 and migrate to z/OS 1.7
C. Order the most current version of z/OS and migrate to that version
D. Install the z10 with z/VM and run z/OS 1.4 as a z/VM Guest
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a customer project status meeting, a new requirement surfaces. This requirement may result in
substantially more storage being needed than originally specified. Which of the following addresses this
change?
A. Provide a quotation for more disk
B. Recommend the client postpones the requirement
C. Propose IBM Storage Cloud Services
D. Process a project change-order
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer with a System z Server and DS8000 storage subsystems will be creating a new remote data
center for disaster recovery (DR). The data centers are 613 kilometers (381 miles) apart. The data
migration and production cutover must be accomplished with minimal disruption.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Global Mirror
B. SVC
C. PPRC
D. Flash Copy
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has several System z servers and is considering moving to zEnterprise. They ask if all their
installed systems can be upgraded directly to zEnterprise. Which of the following IBM z Servers will not
upgrade directly to zEnterprise?
A. z10 EC
B. z9 EC
C. z10 BC
D. z10 IFL only
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is installing their first zBX to analyze the fit for a large implementation later. The Operations
Director is concerned about what device would service the blade, specifically for replacing microcode or
recognizing hardware failure. Which of the following devices performs these functions for the zBX?
A. Any HMC attached to the z196
B. Any HMC attached to the System z ensemble that owns the blade
C. The HMC currently running Unified Resource Manager
D. The HMC attached to the System z node that owns the blade
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern.?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C

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NO.8 The System z specialist is talking to the IT Manager of a large enterprise who asks, what are the
benefits of Server Virtualization? Which of the following is a benefit of Server Virtualization on System z
A. Hipersocket networking reduces physical networking requirements between virtual servers
B. Equal access to all resources and data for all applications
C. Will always reduce cost of IT
D. NSF allows data be shared between UNIX, Windows and System z Servers
Answer: A

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NO.9 A client is considering a zBX for application serving. Which of the following issues need to be discussed
during implementation planning for the zBX with the client?
A. Level of Windows running on zBX
B. Toleration PTFs for z/OS running on the zBX
C. Maintenance level of zVM
D. Levels of Linux on System x, and AIX on zBX
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is planning for their first z196. At what stage should pre-sale TDA be performed?
A. Prior to point of ordering
B. Prior to proposal
C. Prior to initial solution design meeting
D. Prior to delivery
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-754
Exam Name: IBM (Retail Store Solutions - Windows Technical Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 After a customer has completed configuration of a Microsoft Windows POSReady 2009 preloaded
solution, and the POS is rebooted, Microsoft Windows prompts for the Administrator password to log on.
How should the technical specialist assist the customer with obtaining this password?
A. advise the customer that the Administrator password is blank
B. advise the customer to use the system serial number as the Administrator password
C. provide the customer with the default password ('password'), which is the same for all systems
D. refer the customer to the README file on the system hard drive for the password for that system
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer wants to upgrade the operating system on their existing POS terminal hardware. What is the
most important question to consider when determining if this upgrade is possible?
A. Will the existing POS terminal's hardware support the new operating system?
B. Will the new POS terminal's hardware support the existing operating system?
C. Will the new POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
D. Will the existing POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
Answer: A

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NO.3 The client team has proposed a POS system upgrade to a customer. This upgrade includes migrating
the customer from a standard LCD display to a 4820 SurePoint touchscreen which the customer wants to
use with their existing POS application. Which factor is most important for the customer to consider when
reviewing this proposed upgrade?
A. How will the 4820 SurePoint display be mounted?
B. What is the screen size of the 4820 SurePoint display?
C. Was the existing POS application designed for touch operation?
D. What is the touch technology used by the 4820 SurePoint display?
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool can be used to duplicate the gold system?
A. IBM Director
B. Windows System Restore
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is implementing a POS application that requires continuous connectivity to a host
application at the corporate office. Which network feature can this customer implement at the store-level
to ensure that connectivity to the corporate office from the store is available?
A. an in-store DNS server
B. a backup network switch
C. a backup instance of the host application
D. a dial or DSL backup for the store's WAN connection
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is upgrading their store system to include new POS terminal hardware and
peripherals, new store servers, and a new POS application. What is the best time to begin the store
migration project to reduce the impact on the store and allow time for system testing?
A. after the store opens the day of the migration
B. after the store closes the day of the migration
C. before the store opens the day of the migration
D. before the store closes the day of the migration
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is interested in the hardware system information that can be provided by RMA. When
setting up the lab environment, which component is required on the POS terminal to obtain this
information?
A. IBM Director
B. IBM UPOS driver
C. USB filter driver
D. IBM POS sensor driver
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer reports that the touch panel on their IBM AnyPlace Kiosk is no longer working. Which step
should be taken to determine if the issue is hardware related?
A. test the touch panel on a SurePOS 300 system
B. install the latest version of BIOS and reset the default settings
C. test the functionality of the touch panel when in the BIOS Setup Utility
D. ensure that the latest version of touch drivers are installed on the system
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is upgrading their POS application. The new application will store all data and configurations
on the store server, which has redundant disks. The customer is concerned about using disk space wisely
and would like a plan that has a short recovery period. Which backup plan is most appropriate for this
customer?
A. perform a nightly backup of all terminals to be stored on the store server
B. perform a nightly backup of the store server to be stored on an external backup drive
C. perform a weekly backup of all terminals to be stored on the terminal's internal hard drive
D. perform a weekly backup of the store server to be stored on the server's internal hard drive
Answer: B

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NO.10 A proposal includes the 4610 1NR printer that is connected via powered USB. What are two benefits of
the proposed solution.? (Choose two.)
A. The printer provides a document insert station.
B. The printer is seen as an RS-232 device in Windows.
C. The printer has sensors that can report on the status of its components.
D. The printer can be driven by the application through direct communication.
E. The printer can be driven by the application through a Native Windows Driver.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 000-M90
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Analytics Theory Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT available with a Text Analytics collection?
A. Search multiple collections.
B. Custom text extraction rules.
C. Deep inspection of analysis results.
D. Custom user dictionaries.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following views of the Text Miner is dedicated to analyze a three way correlation between a
pair of selected facets?
A. Deviations view.
B. Trends view.
C. Connections view.
D. Documents view.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following rules can be used to build categories?
A. Group documents by specifying a URL pattern.
B. Categorize documents that match complex query.
C. Identify documents based on specified keywords that occur in the document contents.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the difference between a crawler plug-in versus an export plug-in for the crawled documents.?
A. Only the export plug-in can export the crawled document to a file system.
B. The crawler plug-in can view the metadata while the export plug-in cannot.
C. The crawler plug-in can modify the crawled document while the export plug-in cannot.
D. None, they referred to the same plug-in.
Answer: C

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NO.5 One of the challenges in working with unstructured information is that traditional business intelligence
solutions are limited to which of the following?
A. Intranet search and analysis.
B. Reporting and analysis of only structured data.
C. Reporting and analysis of only non-structured data.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.1 The purpose of Symphony Java API is ___________.
A. to have a standardize way of utilizing functionality of Symphony from within your Symphony
applications.
B. to display Java Server Pages in Symphony.
C. to allow Java application to run from within Symphony.
D. to support Javascript scripting language just like a web browser.
Answer: A

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NO.2 DataPilot table consists of which 4 areas?
A. Page area, Title area, Data area and Detail area
B. Row area, Column area, Data area and Page area
C. Title area, Row area, Column area and Data area
D. Top area, Bottom area, Left area and Right area
Answer: B

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NO.3 Jane is new to Lotus Symphony and she wants to know what are the advantages of using Mail Merge.
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Mail Merge.?
A. You can send attachments as PDF, not just ODF.
B. You can send out batches of letters that merge fields from a data source.
C. You can use Java API to execute mail merge operation in the background.
D. You can select a data source and merge its fields into a new document.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which APIs does Symphony Presentation Object Model provide?
A. APIs to open, save and close presentation
B. APIs to save presentation to Lotus Notes database
C. APIs to convert presentation to Microsoft PowerPoint format
D. APIs to convert presentation to XML format
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is one of the advantages of Symphony being built on top of Expeditor?
A. It allows you to create artificial intelligence applications.
B. It allows you to write .NET applications and integrate them with documents.
C. It allows you to synchronize every character of a document with a server.
D. It allows you to embed business productivity tooling in line of business workflow and vice-versa.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-910
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment & Administration Update)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT true regarding WebSpere Portal v7.0 and VMware support?
A. VMware can only be used when WebSphere Portal v7.0 is not clustered.
B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a portal farm.?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: COG-700
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Planning Application)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Why would an administrator publish data to a table-only layout, instead of a view layout?
A. The administrator wants to publish only detail (non-calculated) plan data.
B. The administrator wants to publish the data to an Oracle database.
C. The administrator wants to use the published data with the Publish to Cognos Metrics Manager
extension.
D. The administrator wants to publish the data to a SQL Server database.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about sorting D-Cube data?
A. D-List items can be sorted alphabetically
B. Saving a D-Cube saves only the data but not the sort order
C. Rows can be sorted using one criteria and columns using another
D. An indicator appears on sorted D-Lists that allows switching of the sort order
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a distributed Cognos Planning environment, where is the online Contributor application stored and
maintained?
A. On the datastore
B. On the report server
C. On the job server
D. On the dispatcher
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a D-Link using a virtual dimension on the source side called?
A. Lookup D-Link
B. Internal D-Link
C. Allocation D-Link
D. Accumulation D-Link
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Cash Flow D-Cube tracks incoming and outgoing cash each month. The amount of cash going out
each month is always a fraction of the opening balance for the period (such as 20%). Which BiF should be
used to calculate the opening and closing balances?
A. @Movsum
B. @DelayDebt
C. @FeedParam
D. @StockFlow
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which method of mapping must the modeler use to change the sign (+/-) of selected data items being
transfered by D-Link?
A. Match description
B. Local allocation
C. D-Cube allocation
D. Saved A-Table
Answer: D

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NO.7 When importing from Cognos Package Data into an A-Table, what is the minimum number of query
items that must be selected?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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NO.8 Users of the Contributor Web grid want to be able to import data from ASCII files and Excel files as well
as local Contributor dat a.
These end users do not have any rights in the Contributor Administration Console or Analyst. What must
these users create?
A. System Link
B. Administration Link
C. D-Link
D. Local Link
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration
extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?
A. A view only published data source
B. A table only published data source
C. A Contributor application data source
D. An Analyst application data source
Answer: B

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NO.10 A D-Cube calculates monthly revenue by product. Revenue for a product is equal to the unit sale price
multiplied by the quantity sold. If the modeler is applying a weighted average to the Unit Sale Price item,
which should be used for the weighting?
A. Revenue
B. Quantity sold
C. Number of months
D. Number of products
Answer: B

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NO.11 A modeler wants to create a macro that updates all D-Cubes in the model. What is the fastest way for
the modeler to create this macro?
A. Use the Macro Record option
B. Use the Macro Run option
C. Use the Macro Wizard option
D. Use the Trace Macro option
Answer: C

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NO.12 A modeler creates a D-Link that transfers data from an ASCII file called Franchise into a D-Cube called
Income Statement. According to proven practices, what is the recommended name for the D-Link?
A. Franchise>Income Statement
B. Franchise.csv>Inc State
C. Income Statement<Franchise
D. Income Statement<Franchise.csv
Answer: D

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NO.13 A target D-Cube in Analyst contains data for Central Europe, Southern Europe, and Northern Europe.
The modeler wants to transfer data into this D-Cube from an ASCII file that contains only data for
Southern Europe and Northern Europe. Given that all dimensions are paired using Match Description,
what must the modeler do to ensure that the Central Europe data in the target D-Cube does not get
erased when the D-Link runs?
A. Set the mode to Substitute
B. Assign Central Europe as the Dump item
C. Apply a "hold" command to data for Central Europe
D. Nothing; the D-Link will only transfer data for paired items
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and roles have access
to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about using a D-Cube allocation in a D-Link?
A. The D-Cube used for the allocation can only have two dimensions
B. The D-Cube slice can contain data formatted as text, numeric, or date/time
C. A D-Cube slice can only be used for allocation in one D-Link
D. The D-Cube slice can only contain one page of data
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Author)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true about using a burst key to burst reports.?
A. A burst key can be added to a crosstab report.
B. A burst key can be added to a list report.
C. A burst key can be added to a chart report.
D. A burst key can be added to a map report.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An author creates a report for bursting. In Report Studio, the author sets the burst type for the report to
Directory entries. In Cognos Connection, the author sets the run options to burst the report and send the
report by email. If the email addresses for the burst recipients are accessible by IBM Cognos BI, what is
the expected result?
A. The report is burst to email addresses only.
B. The report is burst to both email addresses and directory entries.
C. The report is burst to directory entries only.
D. A warning message appears indicating a conflict in the run options.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In Report Studio, when creating a list report, what is the difference between creating a section and
creating a header?
A. Headers appear outside the list.
B. Sections appear outside the list.
C. Headers appear once at the top of the list.
D. Sections appear once at the top of the list.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In Report Studio, which variable requires the author to create values?
A. Style
B. String
C. Boolean
D. Language
Answer: B

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NO.5 In Report Studio, an author wants the report title to appear in the language in which the report is run.
What property of the report header must the author define to create this variable?
A. Style Variable
B. String Variable
C. Render Variable
D. Text Source Variable
Answer: D

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NO.6 In Report Studio, when would the author need to unlock cells on a report?
A. To merge two report types into a single report.
B. To merge query items into a single column.
C. To merge a query item into a text item.
D. To merge report objects in table.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In Report Studio, an author creates a weekly sales report and modifies the global class settings in the
report. Which reports will this modification affect?
A. All reports.
B. Reports created using the same package.
C. Reports created within the log on session.
D. Only the current report.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for Staff Name, Order number, and
Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see
only data relating to sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output
will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the Staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the Staff Name data item as a property of the List object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In Report Studio, an author creates a report using Package A. Users should be able to drill through to
target reports created for this package. What must the author do?
A. Enable package drill-through behavior for the report.
B. Add this report as a source report for each target created for the package.
C. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package as targets for the source report.
D. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package to the scope of the report.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An author creates a report in Report Studio. The report contains a parameter for the Product line query
item. The author wants to let users drill through to this report from a variety of reports created using the
GO Data Warehouse (query) package. To ensure that this target report contains data for the appropriate
products, the author wants to limit the report cells that users can drill through from in source reports. What
must the author do when creating the drill-through definition?
A. Set the Product line query item as the target of the drill-through definition.
B. Set the Product line query item as the scope of the drill-through definition.
C. Add a parameter for the Product line query to the drill-through definition.
D. Delete all data items except for the Product line query item from the drill-through definition.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-917
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Connections 3.0)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Arthur, the administrator, has just configured the <languageSelector> element in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file with a value of defaultLanguage="en" and no additional langage
elements listed. What is the user experience for Miguel, a user, when he accesses Connections features
with a locale setting of "es" (Spanish) in his browser?
A. The language that Miguel can view the Connections interface in a web browser is based on his
preferredLanguage.
B. The default value of the server operating system that Connections was installed on is French, so
Miguel is only able to see the user interface in French.
C. Because the default language is "en" and no additional language elements are included in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file, Miguel only sees the English Connections interface.
D. Miguel sees the user interface in Spanish because the browser locale setting overrides the default
language setting in the LotusConnections-config.xml file. But, he can select any language that he wants
from the toggle button.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Patrick has defined an IBM HTTP Server and mapped his installed features to it. However, he still sees
that the port numbers are in the URL when he uses a link from the navigation bar. What is the most likely
reason this is happening?
A. The host alias has not been defined for his features.
B. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the serverindex.xml file.
C. The feature's port numbers must be removed from the IBM HTTP Servers httpd.conf file.
D. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the LotusConnections-config.xml file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Juan is preparing Tivoli Directory Integrator to populate and maintain Profiles records, and he must
configure the environment so that the Connections and Tivoli Directory Integrator solution tasks can
connect to the database hosting the Profiles database. How does he configure the database drivers so
that they are available to the solution?
A. He copies the database JDBC drivers to the jvm/jre/lib/ext subdirectory of the Tivoli Directory Integrator
installation.
B. No driver configuration is necessary, because all database connections are managed by the database
client software.
C. He updates the Tivoli Directory Integrator solution's profiles_tdi.properties file, and sets the
dbrepos_jdbc_driver property to a local directory path containing the database JDBC drivers.
D. He updates the ibmdisrv file in the Tivoli Directory Integrator installation directory and adds a the local
directory path containing the database JDBC drivers using the "-driverpath" parameter on the Java
invocation command.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When you installed Connections you specified Oracle for the RDBMS system to store data. What must
you do to enable the applications to use the JDBC driver?
A. Install the Oracle thin client on all WebSphere Application Server nodes.
B. Install the Oracle thin client on the deployment manager and stop and restart all nodes.
C. Copy the Oracle JDBC driver to the same location on all nodes.
D. Install Oracle SQL Plus on all WebSphere Application Server nodes and configure the TNS Listener
with the Oracle server connection URL.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Baxter just installed the Search application on multiple nodes. What configuration does Baxter need to
perform to initialize the search index on all nodes?
A. Set SEARCH_INDEX_DIR on all nodes to the same network share
B. Copy the search index to the same place on each node
C. Build the search index on each node
D. Nothing; the index is automatically created across all the nodes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Dahlia is installing Connections on a Microsoft Windows operating system. She has chosen to use the
text installation command window instead of the graphical one. Which of the following commands allows
her to launch the installation console interface on Microsoft Windows?
A. install_root.sh
B. No console install option exists in Connections 3. Dahlia must use the silent installation process
instead.
C. install.bat -console
D. LCconfig.exe -console
Answer: B

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NO.7 Judy wrote an audit tool that plugs into Connections using the Event SPI. How is an Event SPI
implementation deployed?
A. The extension is a stand-alone JAR file that must be added to every EAR file. This process can be
manually copied to the EAR or deployed using the WebSphere Application Server admininstrative
application update tools.
B. Judy must create a WAR file that must then be deployed to every EAR file that you want to audit. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
C. The extension must be included in an EAR file and deployed to an existing or new cluster. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
D. The extension is deployed as a WebSphere Application Server shared library.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Baxter has just finished installing everything in Connections except Files and Wikis. He has now
changed his mind and decided that they need Files. What must Baxter do to install Files?
A. Install the Files.ear file from within the WebSphere Application Server administration console.
B. Connections needs to be uninstalled and then reinstalled with Files.
C. Files is always installed, it just needs to be enabled.
D. Use the IBM Installation Manager, select Modify, and add Files.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Joe has installed and enabled the mobile feature. He has been using the self-signed SSL certificate
produced by WebSphere Application Server, rather than having a trusted certificate.
What must he do to allow iPhone and iPod Touch users to access secure pages from their devices without
receiving warnings about the untrusted certificate?
A. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
B. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
C. Nothing. The iPhone and iPod Touch devices automatically trust the self-signed certificate and allow
the user to access Connections information without warnings being shown.
D. Send an email to his users with the certificate as an attachment, ask them to open the
attachment from the device. When they do, the device recognizes it, and installs the certificate.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Bob needs to configure federated repositories using LDAP over SSL. Identify which of the following
tasks is not required to enable SSL communication over LDAP.?
A. Change the port number to the SSL port of the LDAP server.
B. Select the SSL alias defined by Bob in the trust store in the federated repositories configuration.
C. Add a signer certificate to the trust store in WebSphere Application Server by retrieving the certificate
from the LDAP port.
D. Generate a self-signed certificate with an alias using the ikey manager utility and add it to the
Websphere Application Server certificate store.
Answer: D

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