2014年6月30日星期一

HP0-662 Practice Test, HP2-B76 Real Dumps, HP2-B112 Test Answers

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Exam Code: HP0-662
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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals
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Exam Code: HP2-B112
Exam Name: HP Document Workflow - Technical
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NO.1 docId%253Demr_na-c030467044%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet.be
gCacheTok=com.vignett
e.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(4thbulleted point)
3. Which configuration option is required to enable Send to Home Directory?
A. Enable sent to email SMTP authentication
B. Enable front panel user authentication
C. Administrator password EWS authentication
D. SNMPv3 key authentication
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDispla
y/?javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.
vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.prp_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=wsrpnavigationalSta
te%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c027201942%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet
.tpst=ba847bafb2a2d782fc
bb0710b053ce01&sp4ts.oid=415204&ac.admitted=1385618012286.876444892.49288315

NO.2 What is Windows authentication?
A. A proprietary port on HP Jetdirect cards
B. A programming language for web development
C. A printer control language
D. A way of identifying a user before access is granted
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one way to improve MFP email security?
A. Require the MFP user to type something in the subject field.
B. Encrypt it using SMTP SSL protocol
C. Configure the MFP file system password
D. Configure the MFP Admin password
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDispla
y/?sp4ts.oid=4184772&spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay&spf_p.prp_kbDocDisplay=wsrpnavigationalState%

NO.4 Which field is required before you can configure the HP DSS Save to Network Folder OCR
option?
A. SNMP OID location
B. SMTP location
C. Destination folder location
D. LDAP attribute location
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/
kb/docDisplay/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDispla
y=docDisplayResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kb
DocDisplay=wsrp-resourceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c004331243%257CdocLocale%253D&javax
.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

NO.5 Where is the Quick Setup Wizard located?
A. In the HP Address Book Manager
B. In the user PC device manager
C. In the HP MFP Embedded Web Server
D. In the HP OXP deployment tool
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one reason that HP flow MFPs can scan up to twice as fast as other models?
A. They have single-pass dual-head scanners.
B. The paper handling engine turns twice as fast.
C. The document scanner uses page wide array technology.
D. Itincludes ultrasonic pick detection
Answer: A

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2014年6月29日星期日

220-701 Training online, SGO-001 Latest Dumps

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Exam Code: 220-701
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
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Exam Code: SGO-001
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NO.1 The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to
add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern.
What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode
B. HBA firmware/driver code
C. zone naming convention
D. virtualization engine
Answer: D

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NO.2 University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre
channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides
their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security
mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP
B. link encryption
C. switch authentication
D. port authentication
Answer: D

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NO.3 An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached
storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.5 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.7 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A,E

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FC0-U41 Braindumps, HT0-102 Exam PDF, JK0-U11 VCE Dumps

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Exam Code: FC0-U41
Exam Name: CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals
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Exam Code: HT0-102
Exam Name: HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration
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Exam Code: JK0-U11
Exam Name: CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam
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NO.1 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following tools is used to fasten a connector to a cable end?
A. Crimper
B. Wire strippers
C. Lineman's pliers
D. Punch-down tool
Answer: A

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NO.4 One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection?
A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

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NO.6 A programmable HVAC thermostat can be accessed remotely to:
A. warm of a high heating bill
B. light up the thermostat in dark hallways
C. power the HVAC upon the loss of AC power
D. allow the panel to control the temperature settings of the thermostat
Answer: D

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NO.7 The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as:
A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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BI0-145 Study Guide, BI0-122 Real Questions, BI0-132 Dumps PDF

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Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 BI Multidimensional Author
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Exam Code: BI0-122
Exam Name: Cognos 8 BI Administrator v2
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Exam Code: BI0-132
Exam Name: Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer
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NO.1 To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Levels
D. MUNs
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.3 A report author is working with an OLAP data source. The report author creates a query that uses a
caption function on a member and applies a string function. What is a possible consequence of this
action?
A. Using these dimensional methods will not work with an OLAP data source.
B. The mapped string values will not pass through to the target report.
C. This action will remove the caption from the report layout, but leave the query in the report.
D. Mixing dimensional styles and relational styles in a single query can create unexpected results.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A

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NO.5 A data source has a Time hierarchy, a Products hierarchy, and a Retailers hierarchy. What are the
preferred techniques the report author would use to focus reports for this type of a data source?
A. Dimensional functions and slicers
B. Months and product lines
C. Intermediates and descendants
D. Detail filters and summary filters
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Implementing Citrix Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition
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NO.1 Which three entities could be used to configure SmartAccess? (Choose three.)
A.Traffic policy
B.Session policy
C.Session profile
D.Authorization profile
E.Pre-authentication policy
Answer:B C E

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NO.2 When creating a Web Interface XenApp Services site for use with Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise
Edition, which access method or authentication should be specified for the XenApp Services site?
A.SmartAccess Control
B.Explicit authentication
C.Advanced Access Control
D.Pass-through authentication
Answer:C

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NO.3 Scenario: A network administrator created multiple personal folder files (*.pst) on a workstation while
accessing Outlook over a VPN session. The administrator would like for the *.pst files to be deleted upon
logout from the VPN session.The administrator should configure the client cleanup to clean up _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.cookies
B.*.pst files
C.address bars
D.application data
Answer:D

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NO.4 Scenario: A group of students need access to an online examination for only one hour. The group must
be prompted periodically about the logout time during the last three minutes of their one hour session, and
the session must time out exactly after one hour. Which setting should the administrator enable when
configuring Access Gateway to provide access to these students?
A.Kill all the sessions pertaining to the students exactly after one hour
B.Specify the login and logout time so that the students' connections can time out exactly after one hour
C.Configure a session profile with a forced time out warning value of three minutes and forced time out
time of one hour
D.Configure a session profile with a session time out warning value of three minutes and session time out
time of one hour
E.Configure a session profile with a client idle time out warning value of three minutes and client idle time
out time of one hour
Answer:C

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NO.5 What is the minimum assignment of rights that users must have in order to install the Citrix Access
Gateway Plugin for Windows for the first time on a client device?
A.Power User
B.Authenticated User
C.Local Administrator
D.Domain Administrator
Answer:C

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NO.6 Scenario: A system administrator created a new virtual server, "admin.widget.com", on an Access
Gateway appliance. Only system administrators will be connecting to this virtual server. These system
administrators require a full SSL VPN tunnel when connecting. Other users connect to another virtual
server, "users.widget.com", which runs on the same Access Gateway appliance. Any user connecting
through "users.widget.com" currently connects clientlessly. Which action must the administrator take to
give the system administrators full VPN access?
A.Edit the virtual server corresponding to admin.widget.com and enable the Citrix Access Gateway Plugin
for ActiveX
B.Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to users.widget.com
C.Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to admin.widget.com
D.Create a session policy, select Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows as the "Windows PluginType"
in the profile associated with the policy and apply the policy to admin.widget.com
Answer:D

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NO.7 Scenario: An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following settings: A group named
QUARGRP A session profile named QUARPROF, with Clientless Access mode set to ON A session policy
named QUARPOL, with the expression, "NS_TRUE" and the profile QUARPROF The QUARPOL session
policy is bound to the QUARGRP group The global settings with Client Security is set to "CLIENT.APP.AV
== SYMANTEC EXISTS" and the quarantine group is set to QUARGRP Which client will be provided to a
user who logs on to the virtual server from a client device that is NOT running Symantec Antivirus?
A.Web Interface
B.Clientless Access
C.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
D.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer:B

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NO.8 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure access to published resources in a Citrix XenApp
farm through Access Gateway. The administrator will implement Access Gateway as a replacement for
the current Secure Gateway deployment, which does NOT have SmartAccess. Which three steps must
the administrator take for this scenario? (Choose three.)
A.Set ICA Proxy to ON
B.Configure split tunneling
C.Set Single Sign-on Domain
D.Configure the Secure Ticket Authority server
E.Set the Access Gateway home page to the Web Interface URL
Answer:A C D

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NO.1 How is an access server farm identified?
A.By the IP address of the primary server.
B.By the machine name of the primary server.
C.By the name of the first access center created.
D.By the name of the domain where the access center server farm resides.
Answer:B

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NO.1 What are restrictions ofICAsession shadowing? (Choose two)
A. Only one administrator can shadow a single user.
B. MetaFrame XP users cannot be shadowed from sessions on other MetaFrame XP servers.
C. An administrator cannot shadow another user if that user is connected via an RDP client.
D. The window size and color depth of theICAconnection being shadowed must be less than or equal to
that of theICAconnection requesting permission to shadow.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Citrix Management Console requires at least which of the following for installation (Choose two)
A. 60MB of hard disk space
B. 25MB of hard disk space
C. 32MB of RAM
D. 64MB of RAM
Answer: BD

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NO.3 In Citrix Management Console what functions about the License Node are true? (Choose three)
A. Allows the addition of Citrix licenses.
B. Assign product and connection licenses to servers
C. Set MetaFrame Product Codes.
D. The removal of Citrix licenses from the server farm.
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 What information is copied to the server when a print driver is being auto-replicated? (Choose two)
A. Driver files
B. Client permissions
C. Queued print jobs
D. Registry settings'
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which two statements regarding Installation Manager are true?
A.The installation manager node cannot publish the application automatically after installation.
B. Deleting a published application installed with Installation Managers does not result in a application
being uninstalled from the target server.
C. If a program install MetaFrame XP Presentation Server, Advanced Edition and the packager computer
on a separate Window 2000 Server system dedicated to packaging only.
D. If a program is uninstalled form a target machine locally, without the use of installation manager, the
program will not appear to be installed in the management console for MetaFrame XP.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 At what frequency are application thresholds checked by resource manager?
A. Once every second
B. Once every 5 seconds
C. Once every 10 seconds
D. Once every 15 seconds
E. Once every 20 seconds
Answer: D

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NO.7 What command would you use to change theICAport number from its default of 1494 to port 2001?
A. CHANGE MetaFrame XP PORT#2001
B. EDIT ICA PORT/2001
C. PORT CHANGE/2001
D. MODIFY ICA PORT/2001
E. ICA PORT/PORT 2001
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which file on the MetaFrame XP Server is automatically updated with printer driver information?
A. WTSPRNT.INF
B. XPPRNT.INF
C. SYSTEM.INI
D. CLTPRINT.INF
Answer: A

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2014年6月25日星期三

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format would give you the most options within your Flash project?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. PSD
E. Illustrator
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which is an advantage of selecting a Flash Player version in Publish Settings before beginning a
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A. There is NO advantage. It is identical to choosing them at the conclusion.
B. Components not available in the targeted player will be removed from the Components Panel.
C. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be highlighted in the
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D. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be removed from
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Answer: C

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Which graphic asset would require the most processing power on the player?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. Vector
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two file formats can be imported into a SWF file at runtime? (Choose two.)
A. AI
B. JPG
C. EPS
D. PNG
E. PSD
Answer: BD

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NO.5 User accessibility on your video project is a key factor. Which two features should you choose?
(Choose two.)
A. Set showCaptions = true.
B. Use methods of the AccessibleVideo class.
C. Use methods of the UserAccessiblility class.
D. Use Flash 8 Player and the useCaptions method.
E. Use Flash Player 9 with FLVPlayBackCaptioning component.
Answer:AE

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NO.6 Which is NOT a benefit when adding a title in the Document Properties?
A. The title will be used for your HTML document
B. Metadata will be added for any version of Flash
C. Metadata will be added to the head of the SWF file
D. Metadata can be seen by choosing Publish Settings >Generate Size Report
Answer:A

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NO.7 What happens when you drag an object created with the Oval tool to the Library panel?
A. The oval object is added to the Library as a symbol.
B. The oval object is added to the Library as an object.
C. The oval object is added to the Library as a primitive.
D. The oval object is added to the Library as an imported item.
Answer:A

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NO.8 You have a rectangle shape with rounded corners. You want to ensure that the corners do NOT distort
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A. Adjust xscale and yscale properties
B. Convert the shape to a Graphic symbol
C. It's not possible to prevent the corners from scaling
D. Convert the shape to a MovieClip and apply 9-slice scaling
Answer: D

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NO.1 You ¯ vead j us t eda r a w pho t og r aph i n C a m e r a R aw . N o w you a r e r eady t o open t he i m age i n Pho t oshop t o
add some text.However, you want to be able to quicklybring the image from Photoshopback in to Camera
Raw adjustments.What should you do?
A. Click thesave image buttonin Camera Raw,then open the saved file directly in Photoshop.
B. Click the Done buttonin Camera Raw, then open the file directly in thePhotoshop.
C. Hold downthe Shift key to change the Open Image buttonto Open Object,and click the button.
D. Hold the Option (Mac OS)or Alt(Windows)key and click the done button.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You're soft-proofing an RGB image with an ICC profile used for newspaper reproduction. You select the
Simulate Paper Color option in the Customize Proof Condition dialog box. What happens?
A. The highlightsinyour documentsare adjusted to match the white of the paper.
B. You're prompted to select the appropriate paper color from the Color Picker.
C. The highlights in yourdocument appear brighter and more saturated.
D. The brightness of the user interface elements is dimmed for an accurate image preview
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have added a layer mask to a single-layer file so that the image fades gradually from foil opacity
tofully transparent You want to export this as a web graphic In the Save for Web & Devices dialog box,
which settings willbest preserve the transparency inthe optimized version of the image?
A. PNG-24 file format with the Transparency option checked
B. GIF file format with the Transparency option checked
C. JPEG file format with Matte color set tonone
D. WBMP Se format with the Diffusion option selected
Answer: A

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NO.4 When creating a Web Photo Gallery through Adobe Bridge, how does the application handle the color
management of images in the gallery?
A. Allimages are converted to sRGB IEC61966-2.1, and the color profile is embedded.
B. Allmages are converted to Adobe RGB (1998), and the color profile is embedded
C. Image files are not converted during processing, but Color Settings are changed to sRGB JEC61966-2
1
D. Image filesare converted to the current monitor profile, and the color profile is not embedded.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want to open a JPEG directly into Camera Raw to adjust it there. What should you do? (Choose
two.)
A. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and press Control+R (Windows) or Command+R (Mac
OS)
B. In Adobe Bridge, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) and double-click the JPEGthumbnail
C. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and then choose File >Place > In Photoshop.
D. In Photoshop, choose File > Open, select the JPEG file, set the Format menu to Camera Raw, andclick
Open
E. In Photoshop, navigate to the JPEG fileinMini Bridge and double-click its thumbnail
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 You've adjusted a raw photographinCamera Raw, and you'd like to create a small copy of the adjusted
photograph as a JPEG to attach to an email.Which is the best workflow to follow?
A. In Camera Raw, click the Open Image button. Then,inPhotoshop, open the Save for Web & Devices
dialog box, and set the format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click Save.
B. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG Then open the file in Photoshop,
resize it in the Image Size dialog box. and save as JPEG
C. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG Then open the file in Photoshop,
open the Save for Web & Devices dialog box, and set die format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click
Save
D. In Camera Raw,click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG Then select the He in Mini-Bridge,
choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor, and resize and save as JPEG from there
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are adjustinga rawphotographinCamera Raw,and you want to increasecontrast in the midtonesof
the photograph.WhichCamera Rawcontrol should you use?
A. The Clarity Slider
B. The Full Light Slider
C. The Brightness Slider
D. The Recovery Slider
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are slicing aweb page layout. You draw one slice with the Slice tool and Photoshop fills inthe
surrounding areas with automatically-generated auto slices.When you click on one of those other slices
with the Slice Select Tool it does not highlight with position handles.What should you do to display the
positionhandles.
A. Double-click theSlice with the Slice tool
B. Ctrl-dick (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) with the Slice Select Tool
C. Choose die Move tool and select Show Transform Controls m the Options bar.
D. Click the Promote button m the Options bar
Answer: B

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NO.1 You want to create an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Excel workbook. The workbook has
several worksheets and chart sheets. Which command should you choose in Excel to create a
single PDF document that contains all of the worksheets and chart sheets?
A. File > Properties
B. File > Page Setup
C. Adobe PDF > Convert to Adobe PDF
D. Adobe PDF > Convert Entire Workbook
E. Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a PowerPoint presentation. Which functionality in
the PowerPoint presentation is automatically included in the PDF document?
A. macros
B. text outlines
C. slide timings
D. action buttons
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which product can be used to allow business users to create and save Adobe PDF documents
containing interactive forms?
A. Adobe Illustrator
B. Adobe Acrobat Elements
C. Adobe Acrobat 6.0 Standard
D. Adobe Acrobat 6.0 Professional
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which form field type supports a date format?
A. button
B. list box
C. text field
D. combo box
Answer: C

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NO.5 When assigning an action to a form field, what triggers an On Mouse-up action?
A. tabbing out of the field
B. rolling on top of the field
C. clicking the mouse button in the field
D. clicking the mouse button and letting go in the field
Answer: D

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NO.6 From which two applications can Adobe PDF documents be created and maintain layers?
(Choose two.)
A. CorelDRAW!
B. Microsoft Visio
C. AdobeInDesign
D. Autodesk AutoCAD
E. QuarkXPress 5.0 and above
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which application supports one-button creation of Adobe PDF documents?
A. Microsoft Access
B. Netscape Navigator
C. Corel Word Perfect
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command should you use to zoom to see all edges of an Adobe PDF document?
A. View > Fit Width
B. View > Fit Page
C. View > Fit Visible
D. View > Actual Size
Answer: B

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NO.1 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.3 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins. Which of
the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to continue to
stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.6 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.7 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment
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Exam Code: BCP-710
Exam Name: Selling the Blackberry Solution for Tech. Sales Professional
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NO.1 DRAG DROP
What is the correct message flow for an email message going from the mailbox to the BlackBerry
smartphone?Place the steps in the correct order by dragging them from the left to the right.
Answer:

NO.2 Which three of the following features are new Calendar application enhancements introduced with
BlackBerry Device Software 5.0 and BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0? (Choose three.) Tosee the
Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Free/Busy Availability Lookup
B. Forward Calendar Entries
C. Calendar Attachment Support
D. Synchronization of public and private contacts
E. Create a new calendar entry from the BlackBerry device
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Why would someone login to the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. To add their account to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. To synchronize their S/MIME certificate
C. To set an enterprise activation password
D. To modify the BlackBerry Attachment Server settings
E. To modify their wireless PIM sync settings
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two of the following are valid Wi-Fi security protocols? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. WPA
B. PSK
C. Triple DES
D. AES
E. PGP
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of total BlackBerry smartphone users (CAL's) that the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server can handle before it is recommended that a second BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance be added to the BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 2500
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements describe the SRP credentials used by the active and standby
instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a high availability environment? (Choose one.)
Tosee the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use a different SRP ID and
authentication key.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID and
authentication key.
C. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID but
different authentication keys.
D. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use different SRP IDs but the
same authentication key.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is automatically assigned an SRP ID or
authentication key.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three of the following roles are available by default in BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 role
based administration? (Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Junior Help Desk
C. Senior Help Desk
D. Database Administrator
E. Senior Enterprise Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which new feature of BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 can be utilized to minimize or eliminate
upgrade-related down-time? (Choose one.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Transporter
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Disposition Service
E. High availability
F. Application Pool
Answer: E

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Exam Name: Integrating the BlackBerry MVS SIP Gateway Solution
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Exam Name: Developing Java Applications for the BlackBerry Platform
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Exam Code: BCP-240
Exam Name: BlackBerry 10 Support Specialist
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NO.1 Which push header should be used to verify that push requests are received by a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Transport
B. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-Before Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
C. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-After: Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
D. X-Rim-Push-Priority: High
E. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Application
Answer: E

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NO.2 An application receives notification that a new data object is being saved in the RuntimeStore. It may
take up to 60 seconds to save this data. Which method should the application use to obtain the object
from the RuntimeStore? (Choose one.)
A. get( long objectUID )
B. getInstance()
C. fetch( Class objectClass, long timeout )
D. waitFor( long objectUID )
E. put( long objectUID, Object anObject)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which keys are required to use the encryption classes in the Java API in order to store encrypted data
on a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Code development keys
B. Code signing keys
C. Code runtime keys
D. Code encryption keys
E. Code storage keys
Answer: B

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NO.4 An application is needed that can store a list of sales data and customer information. The application
will also need the ability to search through this data and summarize it in an efficient manner. Which data
storage mechanism will assist in meeting all of these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SQLite
B. PersistentStore
C. RecordStore
D. RuntimeStore
E. FileConnection
Answer: D

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NO.5 A developer is writing a game with custom graphics and animations that will need to fit on multiple
screen sizes for various BlackBerry devices. The developer needs to minimize the number of images
created for the game. Which API will support these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SVG
B. Display
C. Transition
D. Multimedia
E. Game
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two of the following classes could be used to check the coverage status? (Choose two.)
A. Radio
B. ConnectionFactory
C. TransportInfo
D. CoverageSate
E. CoverageInfo
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Consider the addTask() method defined below. Its purpose is to receive incoming tasks and put them
into a Vector, _tasks. Another thread will continuously remove the task at index 0 from the Vector.
Assuming that addTask() is being invoked at a rate roughly equal to the rate at which the tasks are being
processed, which concurrency issue may occur during execution? (Choose one.)
A. Livelock
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Starvation
E. Unfairness
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which block of code will ensure that a network connection has been closed? (Choose one.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Answer: A

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