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Exam Code: C2010-574
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V6.1
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
From the messages shown, which action should be considered?
A. stop and start the Data Collector
B. reduce the batch size of the Archive Agent
C. stop and start the Kernel and Publish Servers
D. increase Maximum Method Records in the WSAM User Interface Managing Server System Properties
Answer: D

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NO.2 When enabling PDF support on WebLogic for the Visualization Engine, which script needs to be
modified to include the correct classpaths?
A. klctl.sh
B. setenv.sh
C. am-start.sh
D. startServer.sh
Answer: D

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NO.3 To perform database maintenance, which script should be scheduled to run daily?
A. amctl.sh
B. wdctl.sh
C. run-stats-cmd.sh
D. the data trimmer script
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Managing Server log(s) might help you discover problems with accessing the database?
A. am_ms.log
B. am_sam.log
C. am_ps1.log and am_ps2.log
D. am_aa1.log and am_aa2.log
Answer: D

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NO.5 With WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2, the database port must be provided. How can you
determine the port that is being used by the DB2 instance?
A. You use the b2 listdb2port command.
B. It is provided when the database is installed.
C. The port is discovered dynamically during the install.
D. You use the b2 getdbm cfg command or viewing /etc/services.
Answer: D

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NO.6 For WebSphere Studio Application Monitor (WSAM) V3.2 Management Server with DB2 database to
start and function properly, what must you do to set up the DB2 environment before issuing the command
'sh am-start.sh'?
A. locate source the filesetup_env, which is located in the /etc/Tivoli directory
B. locate and source the file's db2profile, which is located in the WAS_HOME directory
C. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the WSAM_HOME directory
D. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the sqllib subdirectory of the DB2 home
directory
Answer: D

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NO.7 In order to monitor composite transactions in z/OS environment using WebSphere Studio Application
Monitor, what must be done as part of Data Collector install? What needs to be running in order to be able
to collect correlation data for CICS and IMS Subsystems?
A. CYN1PROC
B. CYN1 Subsystem
C. CYN1PROC and RACF
D. CYN1PROC and CYN1 Subsystem
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which change is made by the WebSphere Studio Application Monitoring V3.2 distributed Data
Collector installer (both GUI and silent)?
A. adding SMF support
B. adding a custom service called "AM Custom Service"
C. creating the user "amuser" in the base operating system
D. sourcing the database user's profile in the profile for the user "amuser"
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core B
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NO.1 Which cache type(s) does WebSphere Portal provide?
A. Global only
B. Shared only
C. Non-shared only
D. Shared and non-shared only
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement describes how applications are managed in a cell with multiple clusters?
A. Applications are cluster-scoped and are unique to each cluster.
B. Applications are cell-scoped and must be shared among each cluster.
C. Multiple copies of an application with the same name exist within the cell.
D. The database manages the applications instead of the Deployment Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Paul needs to add an extra instance of an existing portlet to a new page. What action should
he take?
A. Use the WebSphere Integrated Solutions Console to redeploy the existing portlet.
B. Click the copy portlet icon from the existing portlet by using the Manage Portlets portlet.
C. Click the provide portlet icon from the existing portlet by using the Manage Portlets portlet.
D. Use the existing portlet on the new page, but give it a different name and customize its settings.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Chris has an IBM WebSphere Portal server that is configured with an IBM DB2 database. The
passwords for the database users expired and the Portal server does not start. He changed the
passwords on the database itself.
What steps should be taken to correct the Portal configuration before the server is restarted?
A. Update the passwords in jndi.properties and run the update-properties ConfigEngine task.
B. Update the passwords in wkplc.properties and run the database-transfer ConfigEngine task.
C. Update the passwords in wkplc_dbdomain.properties and run the connect-database
ConfigEngine task.
D. Update the passwords in AccessControlDataManagementService and run the
validate-database-connection ConfigEngine task.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Lucas has some theme and skin titles that are not displayed correctly.
How he can solve this issue?
A. Redeploy the theme.
B. Work on the ess file to correct it.
C. Modify grant on theme resources.
D. Set the language preference for HTML markup to UTF-8.
Answer: A

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NO.6 By default, WebDAV clients pass authentication information by using the basic authentication
method.
What would Johnny need to do to use WebDAV when IBM WebSphere Portal is setup with an
External Security Manager by using form-based authentication?
A. Enable Form-Based Authentication for /mycontenthandler/dav/\
B. Use an SQL client and connect to the JCR to bypass the WebDAV front end.
C. Set up a pass-through server that bypasses the ESM and update all references to static content to
point to the pass-through server.
D. Enable HTTPBasicAuthentication only for /mycontenthandler/dav/* and then update the ESM
policy server with all WebDAV HTTP methods.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements are true after running the empty-portal command? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual portals are accessible in a web browser.
B. The base portal is accessible in a web browser.
C. Virtual portals are not accessible in a web browser.
D. The base portal is not accessible in a web browser.
E. Virtual portals are deleted and only base portal remains intact.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Winston's application includes both a custom login portlet and custom authentication filters.
During tests, he requests protected content and observes a pop-up that prompts for his user ID and
password instead of seeing the expected custom login portlet.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The HTTP Basic Authentication Trust Association Interceptor was configured incorrectly.
B. The wps.Login unique name is not assigned to the page that contains the custom login portlet.
C. The wps.ear security constraint in web.xml was not updated to direct requests to the custom
login portlet.
D. The custom authentication filter was configured on the Implicit Login rather than on the Explicit
Login filter chain.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What are some of the primary products involved in the DMO solution's ability to deliver
compelling personalization?
A. IBM Lifecycle and IBM AdTarget
B. IBM Digital Data Exchange and IBM Impression Attribution
C. IBM Digital Analytics on Premises
D. IBM Marketing Optimization and Interaction History
Answer: A

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NO.2 Name the 3 factors that determine the price of Tealeaf software:
A. Page count, #Tealeaf Users, and Products
B. Products. #Tealeaf Users, and #Units
C. #Units, Page Count and #Tealeaf Users
D. Products. Page Count and #Units
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the two primary benefits for companies using Tealeaf?
A. Marketing placement and IT performance
B. IT performance and data analytics
C. Conversion and retention
D. Data analytics and retention
Answer: C

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NO.4 When it comes to DMO's digital marketing execution, what are some of the key capabilities?
A. Strategic planning and budgeting
B. Product recommendations and email targeting
C. Measuring customer interaction across their lifecycle
D. Generating a pipeline of qualified leads
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which marketing channel does IBM Impression Attribution primarily influence?
A. Email marketing
B. Display advertising
C. Social media
D. Mobile channels
Answer: B

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NO.6 The products in CBA Suite consists of all the following except:
A. cxReveal
B. cxView
C. cxResults
D. cxOverstat
E. cxImpact
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is IBM Multichannel Analytics designed to help marketers achieve?
A. Push messaging across multiple marketing channels
B. Segmentation of marketing activities across web, mobile and social
C. One-to-one customer interaction across multiple channels
D. Improved insight via incorporation of offline data
Answer: C

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A. Instant insight into opt-in permissions
B. Provide a complete picture of customer interactions
C. Detailed history of a customer's word-of-mouth activity
D. Ability to analyze customer sentiment and opinions
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Application Performance Management V7.7 Fundamentals
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NO.1 If there is a need to run data rules on a daily basis, which two options are valid?
A. Create a bundle and run lAJob command
B. Schedule lAJob runs using DataStage Director
C. Run lAJob command pointing to data rule executable
D. Run lABundle command pointing to all rules to be executed
E. Submit lAJob command on a daily basis from Information Server Operation console
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You have been tasked with documenting all fields that contain personal information while
performing profiling activities.
Which method would you use to accomplish this?
A. Select the 'Personal' status on the Domain & Completeness workspace.
B. Update the 'Priority' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
C. Update the 'Personal' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
D. Select the data class or sub-class indicating the type of information for each field containing
personal information.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two characteristics of data rules?
A. Each data rule has a defined status.
B. Data rules only produce exception data.
C. Data rule definitions are explicit to one data source.
D. You cannot transfer data rules to another environment.
E. Data rules can be tested interactively during data rule creation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 You are configuring security for a user who will be testing Information Analyzer rules on an ad
hoc basis.
What steps are necessary to ensure the user can test the rules?
A. Enable the Suite User and Information Analyzer Rules Author roles in the Information Server web
console on the Administration tab.
B. Enable the Rules User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace.
C. Enable the Rule User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Rules Operator role in the Information Analyzer console in the Home Analysis Settings workspace
.
D. Enable the Suite User and Rules Administrator role in the Information Analyzer web console on the
Administration tab. Add the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project
Properties workspace.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are working with a System Administrator who must move an Information Analyzer project
to a new Information Server environment using the command line tools. You need to ensure that the
project is established with the same metadata and reports as in the original environment.
Which parameter must be included to successfully complete the export?
A. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeCommonReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
B. -includeAssignedAssets; -includeProjectReports; -includeAIIDataSources
C. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
D. -includeProjectMetadata; -includelAReports; -includeDependentClasses
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two steps are necessary to set up data rule monitoring?
A. Create Metric.
B. Create Data Rule Definition.
C. Create Data Source connection.
D. Create batch script to run data rule.
E. Create and configure dashboard environment to see run results.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which can be done in the Data Rule Stage?
A. Create a metric
B. Unpublish a rule
C. Delete a published rule
D. Create an unpublished rule
Answer: C

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NO.8 A new business group, working in a separate and distinct Information Analyzer environment, is
starting to assess their data quality, but wishes to reuse existing data quality validation to jumpstart
their effort.
Which method supports delivering the data rule definitions to this new environment?
A. Open InfoSphere Metadata Asset Manager; go to Home>Metadata Management>Data Quality,
select the desired Data Rule Definitions, click the Export task, and then provide the output file name.
Repeat the process in the new environment but click the Import option and select the output file
name.
B. Open InfoSphere Metadata Workbench; go to the Find tab; open drop down list and select Data
Rule Definition; check the desired Data Rule Definitions; click Save icon and select Save as Data
Format(XML) - Import. Open Metadata Workbench in the new environment but click the Advanced
tab; select Import Metadata option and select the output file name.
C. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -getRuleDefinition including the -
project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, and the -xml
output type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new
environment create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
D. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -exportRuleDefinitions including the
-project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, the -xml output
type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new environment
create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Notes Hybrid Config & Onboard Data Transfer
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NO.1 During IBM SmartCloud Notes account set up, a company's internet domain verification is
A. optional, but recommended and can be performed as soon as the Domain Configuration tool has
been run.
B. required, and can be performed as soon as the Domain Configuration tool has been run.
C. required, and can be performed after the Domain Configuration tool has been run and the
on-premises IBM Lotus Domino Directories have synchronized with the service.
D. Required, and can be performed after the on-premises Lotus Domino Directories have
synchronized with the service provided that a Global Domain document exists in at least one
on-premises Lotus Domino Directory.
Answer: D

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NO.2 After an administrator runs the Domain Configuration tool, check that the on-premises servers
are able to reach the IBM SmartCloud Notes servers by using the
A. ipconfig utility.
B. Telnet command.
C. Trace command.
D. Netstat command.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the passthru server?
A. The passthru server should be registered with its own Organizational-certifier ID for security
purposes.
B. The service does not support the use of IBM Lotus Domino clustering for passthru server failover.
C. An administrator can only use one passthru server in an on-premises environment.
D. The passthru server should be on the internal network.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is required to route mail from external internet domains to users in the customer SMTP
domain who are hosted in the IBM SmartCloud Notes service?
A. A company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the
users in the service
B. An SMTP server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the users in
the service.
C. Either an SMTP host server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the
users in the service or a company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the
internet domain of the users in the service and domain verification has been completed for the
internet domain.
D. An SMTP host server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the users
in the service and a company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the internet
domain of the users in the service.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Conway's customer has two production IBM Lotus Domino domains. The first domain,
Renovations, has users both on-premises and in the service. The second domain, PowerRenov, only
has users on-premises. To route mail from PowerRenov users to Renovations users in the service ....
A. PowerRenov routes mail through Renovations.
B. a passthru server is required for each domain: Renovations and PowerRenov.
C. four mail hub servers are required: two in each on-premises Lotus Domino domain.
D. required Connection documents are automatically created by the Domain Configuration tool.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Once the hybrid account configuration is operational and a second directory server is to be
added, which of the following is true?
A. The customer administrator updates the IBM SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings
with the name of the server.
B. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server and reruns the Domain Configuration Tool that was downloaded when the
initial account was configured.
C. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server, downloads and runs the Domain Configuration Tool.
D. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server and calls IBM Support to confirm the update has been completed.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A user in the IBM SmartCloud Notes service adds an on-premises user into a calendar meeting
invitation. When the chair checks the schedule for freetime slots, the client reports that freetime is
unavailable for the invitee. Which option is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The IBM Lotus Notes client of the meeting chair cannot connect to the on-premises mail server of
the invitee.
B. The Calendar Connector task is not running on the mail-routing hub server.
C. The on-premises mail server is not running IBM Lotus Domino 8.5.1 Fix Pack 2 or later.
D. The SmartCloud Notes mail server of the chair cannot connect to the on-premises mail server of
the invitee.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does running the Domain Configuration tool require?
A. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure.
B. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure and the IBM Lotus
Notes ID has write access to the on-premises IBM Lotus Domino Directory.
C. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure and the Lotus Notes
ID has write access to both the on-premises Lotus Domino directory and the passthru server's Lotus
Domino directory.
D. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure or has a valid VPN
connection to it.
Answer: C

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NO.1 An IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture system is being architected to support a large capture
processing operation consisting of 500 dedicated Taskmaster web users located in the same facility.
What is the minimum recommended number of Microsoft IIS instances?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has images that have machine print as well as handwritten data on the image. Is it
necessary to have an OCR_s or OCR_a engine as well as an ICR engine to extract/read data from the
image, and why?
A. Yes, both OCR_s and ICR_c engines will have to be used.
B. No, ICR_c engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
C. No, OCR_s engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
D. No, OCR_a is the only engine that can read hand-printed and machine-printed text.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The solution designer is creating a standalone FastDoc application and needs to add a
workflow. What construct is created to contain the workflow?
A. Task Profile
B. Batch Profile
C. Batch monitor
D. FastApp template
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company is experiencing some batch aborts that have been traced to recognition failure in
the OCR engine. What is the recommendation to alleviate this?
A. Use managed recognition.
B. Switch to another engine that will sacrifice accuracy for stability.
C. Check to make sure that the input images are oriented correctly.
D. Check the image file sizes. OCR will not work on images bigger than 82.3K. A lower resolution will
be required.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An IBM Datacap Taskmaster developer has a specific page type which needs custom verify
panels to be created for both thick client and web interfaces. Which Datacap components can the
developer leverage to display custom verify interfaces to the end user?
A. FastDoc for thick client and AVerify.aspx for web.
B. DotEdit for thick client and VeriFine.aspx for web.
C. DotScan for thick client and ImgEnter.aspx for web.
D. Batch Pilot for thick client and AIndex.aspx for web.
Answer: B

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6. A customer scans in a document and the template is not recognized within the IBM Datacap
Taskmaster Capture application. What happens when the image or page is not identified?
A. The unidentified page is classified as "Default."
B. The unidentified page is removed from the DCO.
C. The page is classified as the previous identified page.
D. The page is classified as "Other" and has to be otherwise identified.
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following is NOT an "out of the box" export target for IBM Datacap Taskmaster
Capture?
A. Microsoft SharePoint
B. Microsoft SQL Database
C. Open Text Cloud Storage
D. IBM Content Manager (CM8)
Answer: C

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8. For optimal testing results of fingerprints created with AnalyzeImage, which of the following
image processing settings is NOT required?
A. Deskew
B. Line removal
C. Dot Removal
D. Border removal
Answer: B

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9. A customer has remote users that will be scanning in paper documents for their IBM Datacap
Taskmaster applications outside of their office network. What is the BEST method of ingestion for
the customer's application?
A. Use the Taskmaster Web client to scan and then upload the documents, using a TWAIN driver .
B. Use Taskmaster DotScan using ISIS or TWAIN scanner for the remote user to scan in new batches.
C. Use a fax machine where remote user fax images to a Rightfax server which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using a OpenTextFaxServer task.
D. Use a third party application with a scanner for the remote user who then upload the images to a
network folder which is ingested by a RuleRunner server using VScan task.
Answer: A

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10. The IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Studio Test tab provides all EXCEPT the following
runtime processing information?
A. Log file contents
B. Recognition zones
C. Custom action code
D. Batch hierarchy variables
Answer: C

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11. The client requirements outline the need to return documents to the original scan operator
(or department) for verification. What task detail settings will provide this functionality?
A. Mode: Router and Store: User ID
B. Queue by: User and Store: None
C. Mode: Router and Queue by: User
D. Queue by: User and Store: User ID
Answer: D

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12. A solution designer is using the Application Wizard to create a new project. What are some
of the object types, within the hierarchy, that are created by default?
A. Document, Page and Field
B. Batch, Document Separators, Page
C. Variables, Document, Page and Field
D. Main Page, Trailing Page and Other Page
Answer: A

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13. A customer has more than 200 types of documents to be scanned using IBM Datacap
Taskmaster Capture. Some documents have more than 100 index fields that need to be captured.
How many documents / pages / fields can be created in the DCO?
A. Unlimited documents / pages / fields
B. Limited to 50 documents / pages / fields
C. Limited to 10 documents / pages / fields
D. Limited to 100 documents / pages / fields
Answer: A

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14. When IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture converts a single multi-page file to individual a TIFF
file, what determines the maximum number of files that are created and output using the Convert
library actions?
A. The SetMaxImageFiles action determines the maximum.
B. There is no restriction on the maximum number of output files.
C. Inherently a maximum of 1,296 individual TIFF files can be output.
D. Individual Convert actions properties determine the maximum number of output files.
Answer: C

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15. A race condition can occur when two or more threads are able to access shared data. Which
statement is TRUE about the automated vscan task?
A. By default all batch creation tasks are synchronized in memory and can run simultaneously
without conflict.
B. Batch creation tasks from two different applications looking in the same input folder can run
simultaneously without conflict.
C. Batch creation tasks from two different applications looking in two different input folders can run
simultaneously without conflict.
D. Batch creation tasks from a single application but in separate jobs looking in the same input
folders can run simultaneously without conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.1 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
Which statement about U.S. trading practices in 1998 is directly supported by information in the
charts at the left?
A. The United States exported fresh vegetables to Mexico.
B. The United States cut off trade with China.
C. The United States shared borders with two major trading partners.
D. U.S. exports were greater than U.S. imports.
E. U.S. exports remained at the same levels as U.S. 1997 exports.
Answer: C

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NO.2 -- Exhibit- -- Exhibit -
Which is one likely reason the metropolitan government enacted the Juvenile Curfew Act?
A. to help find jobs for young people
B. to protect teenagers during school hours
C. to relieve parents of their responsibilities
D. to protect young people as well as the general public
E. to take away young people's freedoms of assembly and speech
Answer: D

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NO.3 Exhibit: Which action does the principle illustrated in the diagram require most individuals,
governments, and societies to do?
A. use up all available resources
B. produce goods as fast as they can
C. choose between wants and needs
D. make economic decisions quickly
E. spend the least money
Answer: C

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NO.4 In his Farewell Address to the nation, President George Washington advised the new
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developing.This recommendation became a principle of American foreign policy.
Which historical event was an application of this policy?
A. United States leadership in NATO with European nations after WW II
B. the Senate's rejection of U.S. membership in the League of Nations in 1919
C. President Truman's implementation of the Marshall Plan after WW II
D. U.S. membership in the United Nations following World War II
E. the United States membership in the Organization of American States (OAS)
Answer: B

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NO.5 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
According to the map above, which of the following U.S. regions was the most densely populated in
2000?
A. Rocky Mountain states
B. central Great Plains
C. northern Great Lakes
D. Gulf of Mexico coast
E. northeast coast
Answer: E

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NO.6 According to the viewpoint, what would be the best way for a city to decrease its fire death
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A. Hire more firefighters.
B. Buy more fire trucks and equipment.
C. Improve safety education in the schools.
D. Enforce existing fire regulations.
E. Enforce severe penalties for causing fires.
Answer: E

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NO.7 -- Exhibit -
The above photograph illustrates the March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom in August 1963,
attended by an estimated 200,000 people.In the left center of the photograph, Dr. Martin Luther
King, Jr., can be seen marching with the group carrying signs.
-- Exhibit -
Which circumstances in the United States in 1963 most likely motivated people to march?
A. a celebration of a national holiday
B. an international crisis
C. the results of a presidential election
D. discriminatory economic practices
E. a campaign against communism
Answer: D

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NO.8 Based on the viewpoint, which statement about family life is supported?
A. Cultures should not permit a person to remarry.
B. Having an unsatisfying family life is better than being alone.
C. Married people have fewer conflicts than unmarried people.
D. Successful families must cooperate for mutual benefits.
E. Family life is less important today than it was a century ago.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which type of antenna is used in wireless communication?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Parabolic
C. Uni-directional
D. Bi-directional
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which cipher encrypts the plain text digit (bit or byte) one by one?
A. Classical cipher
B. Block cipher
C. Modern cipher
D. Stream cipher
Answer: D

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NO.3 Keystroke logging is the action of tracking (or logging) the keys struck on a keyboard, typically
in a covert manner so that the person using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being
monitored.
How will you defend against hardware keyloggers when using public computers and Internet Kiosks?
(Select 4 answers)
A. Alternate between typing the login credentials and typing characters somewhere else in the
focus window
B. Type a wrong password first, later type the correct password on the login page defeating the
keylogger recording
C. Type a password beginning with the last letter and then using the mouse to move the cursor for
each subsequent letter.
D. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. E.g. if the password is "secret", one could type
"s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next
character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
E. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. E.g. if the password is "secret", one could type
"s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next
character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.4 Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency
located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company's
largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising
company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the
work done for Jason's client unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how
all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor.
Without any proof, Jason's company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another
high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the
hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason's company can finish the
project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could
have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on.
Jason's supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to
the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were
attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason's supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find
anything out of the ordinary with them.
What technique has Jason most likely used?
A. Stealth Rootkit Technique
B. ADS Streams Technique
C. Snow Hiding Technique
D. Image Steganography Technique
Answer: D

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NO.5 Information gathered from social networking websites such as Facebook, Twitter and
LinkedIn can be used to launch which of the following types of attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Smurf attack
B. Social engineering attack
C. SQL injection attack
D. Phishing attack
E. Fraggle attack
F. Distributed denial of service attack
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 An attacker is attempting to telnet into a corporation's system in the DMZ.
The attacker doesn't want to get caught and is spoofing his IP address.
After numerous tries he remains unsuccessful in connecting to the system.
The attacker rechecks that the target system is actually listening on Port 23 and he verifies it with
both nmap and hping2. He is still unable to connect to the target system. What could be the reason?
A. The firewall is blocking port 23 to that system
B. He needs to use an automated tool to telnet in
C. He cannot spoof his IP and successfully use TCP
D. He is attacking an operating system that does not reply to telnet even when open
Answer: C

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NO.7 Joe Hacker is going wardriving. He is going to use PrismStumbler and wants it to go to a GPS
mapping software application. What is the recommended and well-known GPS mapping package
that would interface with PrismStumbler?
Select the best answer.
A. GPSDrive
B. GPSMap
C. WinPcap
D. Microsoft Mappoint
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Explanations: GPSDrive is a Linux GPS mapping package. It recommended to be used to send
PrismStumbler data to so that it can be mapped. GPSMap is a generic term and not a real software
package. WinPcap is a packet capture library for Windows. It is used to capture packets and deliver
them to other programs for analysis. As it is for Windows, it isn't going to do what Joe Hacker is
wanting to do. Microsoft Mappoint is a Windows application. PrismStumbler is a Linux application.
Thus, these two are not going to work well together.

NO.8 You visit a website to retrieve the listing of a company's staff members. But you can not find it
on the website. You know the listing was certainly present one year before. How can you retrieve
information from the outdated website?
A. Through Google searching cached files
B. Through Archive.org
C. Download the website and crawl it
D. Visit customers' and prtners' websites
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Archive.org mirrors websites and categorizes them by date and month depending on the crawl time.
Archive.org dates back to 1996, Google is incorrect because the cache is only as recent as the latest
crawl, the cache is over-written on each subsequent crawl. Download the website is incorrect
becausethat's the same as what you see online. Visiting customer partners websites is just bogus.
The answer is then Firmly, C, archive.org

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Exam Code: CCA-505
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NO.1 Your Hadoop cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can
you configure a worker node to run aNodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still
have a function cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Reduce tasks only
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Yarn daemon or service monitors a Container's per-application resource usage (e.g,
memory, CPU)?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. ApplicationManagerService
D. ResourceManager
Answer: A

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Reference:http://docs.hortonworks.com/HDPDocuments/HDP2 /HDP-2.0.0.2 /bk_usingapache-hadoo
p/content/ch_using-apache-hadoop-4.html(4th para)

NO.3 Your cluster's mapped-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>mapreduce.map.memory.mb</name> <value>4096<value/>
<name>mapreduce.reduce.memory,mb</name> <value>8192</value>
And your cluster's yarn-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>yarn.nodemanager/vmen-pmem-ratio</name> <value>2.1</value>
What is the maximum amount of virtual memory allocated for each map before YARN will kill its
Container?
A. 4 GB
B. 17.2 GB
C. 24.6 GB
D. 8.2 GB
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your cluster implements HDFS High Availability (HA). Your two NameNodes are named nn01
and nn02. What occurs when you execute the command: hdfs haadmin -failover nn01 nn02
A. nn02 becomes the standby NameNode and nn01 becomes the active NameNode
B. nn02 is fenced, and nn01 becomes the active NameNode
C. nn01 becomes the standby NamNode and nn02 becomes the active NAmeNode
D. nn01 is fenced, and nn02 becomes the active NameNode
Answer: D

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Explanation:
failover - initiate a failover between two NameNodes This subcommand causes a failover from the
first provided NameNode to the second. If the first NameNode is in the Standby state, this
command simply transitions the second to the Active state without error. If the first NameNode is in
the Active state, an attempt will be made to gracefully transition it to the Standby state. If this fails,
the fencing methods (as configured by dfs.ha.fencing.methods) will be attempted in order until one
of the methods succeeds. Only after this process will the second NameNode be transitioned to the
Active state. If no fencing method succeeds, the second NameNode will not be transitioned to the
Active state, and an error will be returned.

NO.5 You are the hadoop fs -put command to add a file "sales.txt" to HDFS. This file is small enough
that it fits into a single block, which is replicated to three nodes in your cluster (with a replication
factor of 3). One of the nodes holding this file (a single block) fails. How will the cluster handle the
replication of this file in this situation/
A. The cluster will re-replicate the file the next time the system administrator reboots the
NameNode daemon (as long as the file's replication doesn't fall two)
B. This file will be immediately re-replicated and all other HDFS operations on the cluster will halt
until the cluster's replication values are restored
C. The file will remain under-replicated until the administrator brings that nodes back online
D. The file will be re-replicated automatically after the NameNode determines it is under replicated
based on the block reports it receives from the DataNodes
Answer: B

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NO.6 You decide to create a cluster which runs HDFS in High Availability mode with automatic
failover, using Quorum-based Storage. What is the purpose of ZooKeeper in such a configuration?
A. It manages the Edits file, which is a log changes to the HDFS filesystem.
B. It monitors an NFS mount point and reports if the mount point disappears
C. It both keeps track of which NameNode is Active at any given time, and manages the Edits file,
which is a log of changes to the HDFS filesystem
D. It only keeps track of which NameNode is Active at any given time
E. Clients connect toZoneKeeper to determine which NameNode is Active
Answer: D

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H4-High-Availability-Guide.pdf(page 15)

NO.7 You suspect that your NameNode is incorrectly configured, and is swapping memory to disk.
Which Linux commands help you to identify whether swapping is occurring?
A. free
B. df
C. memcat
D. top
E. vmstat
F. swapinfo
Answer: C

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NO.8 A slave node in your cluster has four 2TB hard drives installed (4 x 2TB). The DataNode is
configured to store HDFS blocks on the disks. You set the value of the dfs.datanode.du.reserved
parameter to 100GB. How does this alter HDFS block storage?
A. A maximum of 100 GB on each hard drive may be used to store HDFS blocks
B. All hard drives may be used to store HDFS blocks as long as atleast 100 GB in total is available on
the node
C. 100 GB on each hard drive may not be used to store HDFS blocks
D. 25 GB on each hard drive may not be used to store HDFS blocks
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ACMP-6.3
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.3
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Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.3
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NO.1 ip access-list session anewone user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit user host
10.1.1.1 any deny
user any any permit
Referring to the above portion of a Mobility Controller configuration file, what can you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. This is a session firewall policy.
B. This is an extended Access Control List (ACL).
C. Any traffic going to destination 10.1.1.1 will be denied.
D. Any traffic going to destination 10.2.2.2 will be denied.
E. Any traffic going to destination 172.16.100.100 will be permitted.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 How many Aruba controllers can be added to a single mobility domain?
A. 64 controllers of any type
B. 128 controllers supporting 2000 users
C. 256 controllers with no more than 1024 subnets
D. Controllers supporting up to 6000 AP's
E. There is no controller limit
Answer: E

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NO.3 A client device associates with an SSID provisioned with 802.1X authentication. The client is
set for LEAP authentication. EAP termination (AAA Fastconnect) is enabled on the controller. But the
client continuously cycles through the authentication process. Which of the following could cause
this?
A. The Radius server is rejecting the client credentials.
B. The client has an expired or revoked server certificate.
C. The DHCP server is not enabled.
D. The VLAN is missing for the SSID.
E. The controller does not support LEAP in this mode.
Answer: E

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NO.4 What information do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. The controller's MAC address and the feature description.
B. Controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. Controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. Controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
E. Controller's MAC address and Serial Number
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true of Spectrum Mode?
A. No licenses are required to run an AP in Spectrum mode
B. Spectrum mode can only be configured for one AP at a time
C. An AP can be in spectrum mode for both 2.4 and 5G bands at the same time
D. An AP can be placed in Spectrum Mode via the Spectrum Profile
E. Spectrum mode can be configured from the GUI under AP installation
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator wants to assign a VLAN to a user based upon the authentication process
using Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA). Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attribute (VSA) values
provisioned?
A. controller
B. client
C. RADIUS server
D. Internal user database
E. Option 60 of DHCP reply
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which command, when executed on a master controller, will show the APs connected to all
controllers?
A. show stm connectivity
B. show ap active
C. show ap database
D. show ap bss-table
E. show ap controller-lms
Answer: C

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NO.8 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. SSH
E. GRE
Answer: B

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