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Exam Code: 648-238

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Connected Physical Security 1 Exam )

648-238 (Implementing Cisco Connected Physical Security 1 Exam ) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/648-238.html

NO.1 The Cisco Physical Security CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 platform can support which configuration of option
cards?
A. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P
B. 2 x CIVS-ENC-8P
C. 2 x CIVS-ENC-16P
D. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P and 1 x CIVS-ENC-8P
Answer: A

Cisco certification training   648-238 practice test   648-238   648-238   648-238

NO.2 Which two of the following Cisco Physical Security MSP servers support an optional secondary power
supply? (Choose two.)
A. CPS-MSP-1RU-K9
B. CPS-MSP-2RU-K9
C. CPS-MSP-4RU
D. CPS-SS-4RU
E. CIAC-PAME-1125-K9
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What are the two differences between interlaced and progressive scan video.? (Choose two.)
A. Progressive scan video is generally better with fast-moving objects
B. Interlaced video is generally better with fast-moving objects
C. Interlaced video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines
D. Progressive scan video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines
Answer: A,C

Cisco test   648-238   648-238 exam

NO.4 In addition to bandwidth, which factors should be considered when designing an IP network capable of
delivering high-quality surveillance video in real time?
A. Minimize jitter and maximize latency
B. Minimize latency and maximize jitter
C. Minimize both jitter and latency
D. Maximize both jitter and latency
Answer: C

Cisco   648-238   648-238

NO.5 Order the following resolutions, by pixel count, from lowest to highest.
A. D1, HD, QCIF, CIF
B. D1, CIF, 4CIF, HD
C. QCIF, CIF, D1, HD
D. QCIF, D1, CIF, HD
Answer: C

Cisco   648-238 certification   648-238 study guide

NO.6 Where should outdoor surveillance cameras be mounted when nearby sources of light are present?
A. The camera should be mounted lower than the light source.
B. The camera should be mounted in parallel with the nearest light source.
C. The camera should be mounted above the light source.
D. Location does not matter, as long as the camera is day/night capable.
Answer: A

Cisco   648-238   648-238   648-238   648-238

NO.7 On a converged network infrastructure, which Layer 2 technology can be easily enabled and configured
to ensure separation of video surveillance traffic on the network from other sources (such as voice, email,
and web browsing)?
A. IP routing
B. Firewall
C. QoS
D. VLAN
Answer: D

Cisco practice test   648-238   648-238 test   648-238 study guide

NO.8 What is the correct camera and lens setup for the use of IR lighting?
A. Color camera with IR corrected lens
B. A camera with day/night mode and IR corrected lens
C. A camera with day/night mode and varifocal lens
D. Color camera with varifocal lens
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which switch port capability is recommended for an MSP server?
A. Server switch ports should have 10/100 Mb capability
B. Server switch ports should have 1000 Mb capability
C. Server switch ports should have 10 Gb capability
D. Servers should be connected to PoE-capable switches
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the maximum number of internal encoder ports supported by the CPS-MSP-2RU-K9?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 48
Answer: D

Cisco study guide   648-238   648-238 original questions   648-238

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Exam Code: 642-035

Exam Name: Cisco (Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Computing)

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NO.1 Which four tasks can be performed via Cisco IMC remote access to a Cisco UCS system?
(Choose four.)
A. power cycle the server
B. deploy an operating system
C. toggle the locator LED
D. configure the boot order
E. view properties and sensors
F. configure the hypervisor
G. enable Cisco UCS Manager
Answer: A,C,D,E

Cisco   642-035 test answers   642-035   642-035

NO.2 At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. unlimited
Answer: A

Cisco   642-035   642-035 study guide   642-035   642-035 questions

NO.3 A local storage installation of ESX on a Cisco UCS C-Series server has failed due to local storage
issues. What is the cause of the problem?
A. LSI drivers are not bundled with ESX.
B. The hard drive has a 1-TB partition size.
C. The server only has an onboard controller, while ESX requires an LSI RAID controller card.
D. ESX is not supported on Cisco UCS C-series servers.
Answer: C

Cisco test questions   642-035 certification   642-035 test answers

NO.4 A customer is troubleshooting degraded DIMM errors on a Cisco UCS blade server and would
like
to reset the BMC. What is the correct command sequence to reset the BMC?
A. UCS1-A# server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
B. UCS1-A# server scope
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
C. UCS1-A# scope server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
D. UCS1-A# scope server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
Answer: C

Cisco exam prep   642-035 questions   642-035

NO.5 A customer would like to create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session on a Cisco UCS server to
troubleshoot network connectivity. The customer has entered the following commands via CLI:
UCS-A# scope eth-traffic-mon
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon # scope fabric a
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric # create eth-mon-session EthMonitor33
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session* # create dest-interface 2 12
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session/dest-interface* # set speed 20gbps
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session/dest-interface* # commit-buffer
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session/dest-interface #
Which outcome will this command sequence produce?
A. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 2, port 12, will set the admin speed to 20 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
B. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 2, port 33, will set the admin speed to 20 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
C. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 33, port 12, will set the admin speed to 20 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
D. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 2, port 12, will set the admin speed to 10 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of boot targets for an FCoE vHBA on a Cisco UCS C-Series
server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-101

Exam Name: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2))

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NO.1 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Answer: A,B,D

Cisco   200-101   200-101 study guide   200-101 questions   200-101   200-101 answers real questions

NO.2 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Cisco original questions   200-101   200-101   200-101

NO.3 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C

Cisco test answers   200-101 demo   200-101   200-101

NO.4 Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP .
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP .
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: 642-384J

Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation Field Specialist (642-384日本語版))

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NO.1 シスコ SR 500 フ ァミリーは、 どの三つの WAN 技術をサポートしますか。 （3 つ選択し
てください。 ）
A. ファーストイーサネット
B. ファイバーチ ャネ ル
C. ADSL
D. T1
E. IPv6
F. SIP トランキング
Answer: A,C,D

Cisco   642-384J exam dumps   642-384J   642-384J

NO.2 四方八方のカバ レッジが必要とされるとき、 どのタイプのアンテナが使用されますか。
A. 指向
B. 双方向
C. 全方向性
D. パッチ
Answer: C

Cisco   642-384J   642-384J   642-384J

NO.3 中間の配布フレームを使用すること の 2 つの利点は何で すか。 （2 つ選択して くださ
い。 ）
A. パワー ・ オーバー・ イーサネット能力
B. より高い RU 密度
C. 減少されたスペー ス
D. ホットスワップ可 能なハードディスクドライブ
E. 減らされたケーブル
Answer: C,E

Cisco   642-384J pdf   642-384J

NO.4 ワイヤレス ・ ドメイン・ サービスを 実 行するとき、どの二 つ の文は自主的なアク セ ス
・ ポイント を使用し て セットされ る無線中 心 的な特徴に ついて記 述 しますか。 （2 つ選択 し
てください。 ）
A. レイヤ 2 とレイヤ 3 サービスは、Cisco Aironet の自律 AP または シスコのサービス統合型
ルータで設定することができる。
B. レイヤ 2 サービスは、Cisco Aironet の自 律 AP またはシスコのサービス統合型ルータで設
定することができる。
C. レイヤ 2 およびレイヤ 3 サービスは、Cisco Aironet の自律 AP ま たはコントローラで設定
することができる。
D. レイヤ 3 サービス は、WLSM で構成されることができる。
E. レイヤ 3 サービスは、WLSE で構成されることができる。
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 ポートのどのコ ンビネーションがシスコ SPA 8800 声ゲート ウェイで利用可能ですか。
A. 1 つのステーション ・ ポートと 1 つのトランク ・ ポート(1xFXS and 1xFXO)
B. 2 つのステーション ・ ポート (2xFXS)
C. 4 つのステーション ・ ポートと 4 つのトランク ・ ポート(4xFXS and 4xFXO)
D. 8 つのステーション ・ ポート 8xFXS)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-515.65

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus)

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NO.1 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

CheckPoint exam prep   156-515.65   156-515.65 exam

NO.2 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-515.65 exam simulations   156-515.65

NO.3 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-515.65   156-515.65   156-515.65

NO.4 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.6 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.7 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.9 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-915.71

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71 Update)

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NO.1 YoujustupgradedtoR71 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want toenable all critical protections
while keeping the rate of false positively verylow.How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is basedon policies, but it has no abilitytocalculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of falsepositives.
B. This can t be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes ahigh rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the abilitytoactivate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense,this can be achieved by activating all the criticalchecks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is calling saying one member's status is Down.What will you check?
A. cphaprob list (verify what critical device is down)
B. Fw ctl debug m cluster + forward(forwarding layer debug)
C. tcpdump/snoop (CCP traffic)
D. fw ctlpstat (check sync)
Answer: A

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NO.3 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartEvent Server
D. Smart Dashboard
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.6 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP, etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view
of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve
that?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration.Machines arenot synchronizer. What happens to
connections on failover?
A. It is not possible to configure High Availabilitythat is not synchronized.
B. B. Old connections are lost but can be reestablished.
C. Connection cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized.
D. Old connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine
recovers.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is the default port few Management Portal?
A. 4434
B. 443
C. 444
D. 4433
Answer: D

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NO.10 To change the default port of the Management Portal,
A. Editthe masters.conffileon the Portal server.
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin.conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initializeSIC.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.71   156-915.71

NO.11 Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If
you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is
needed.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel instances.
C. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R71.
D. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which at the followingcommands showsfull synchronization status?
A. cphaprob-ilist.
B. fw ctliflist
C. Fw hastat
D. cphaprob aif
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer calls saying that a load-sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is
notSYN.Completethe followingsentence. I will recommend:
A. Change the load on each member.
B. configuring flush and ack
C. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
D. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
Answer: D

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NO.14 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall.?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fwkernel
D. fwver -k
Answer: D

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NO.15 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.16 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Client Auth or Session Auth connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member
fails.
B. The stare of connection using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so there
connections cannot be synchronized.
C. Only cluster members running on me same OS platform can be synchronized.
D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly
working synchronization.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setaync 0
B. fw ctl syncsatat stop
C. fw ctl syncstat off
D. fw ctl setsync off
Answer: D

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NO.18 To force clients to use integritySecurity Workspace when accessing sensitive applications, the
Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.19 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicagousing Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicagois not
detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and
determine how Mattcorrectsthe problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-ChicagoSecurity Gateway to theChicago_Profile.
B. Matt should theChicago_Profile to useProtect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create theChicago_Profile and select Activeprotections manually instead of per
theIPSPolicy.
D. Mattshouldactivatethe Chicago_Profileasitis currently notactivated.
Answer: A

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NO.20 After repairing a SmartWorkflow session:
A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started
B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted
C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started
D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started
Answer: B

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NO.21 By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security
Management Server, when:
A. The Security Policy is saved.
B. The Security Policy is installed.
C. The user database is installed.
D. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.
Answer: A

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NO.22 When using ClusterXl in load sharing, what method is used be default?
A. IPs, SPIs
B. IPs, Ports, SPIs
C. IPs
D. IPs, Ports
Answer: C

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NO.23 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.25 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator MUST:
A. Create aninternal userin the admin portal.
B. Install an R71 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate fromSmart Dashboard
D. Store the clientcertificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.26 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access inSmart
Dashboard?
A. QoS Tab
B. SmartDefense Tab
C. IPSec VPN Tab
D. IPS Tab
Answer: D

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NO.27 John isconfiguring anew R17 Gateway cluster but he cannot configurethecluster asThird Party IP
Clusteringin Gateway Cluster Properties:
What s happening?
A. Johnis not using thirdparty hardware asIP Clustering ispart of Check Point sIPAppliance.
B. Third Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
C. ClusterXLneeds to be unsetected to permit 3nd party clustering configuration.
D. John has an invalid ClusterXL license
Answer: C

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NO.28 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security Gateways
sglondon, sgla, andsgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this
possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques likeusing escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands.It is also possible that thereare entry points not shown in the network layout, like
rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network without
anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates
and well-turned anomaly algorithms.Even if this is accomplished, notechnology can offer 100 %
protection.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Whichof theft flowing is TRUE concerning unnumberedVPNTunnelInterfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTTs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
B. Local IP addresses are not configured, remoteIPaddresses are configured
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback
D. VTIs are only supported on the IPSO Operating System
Answer: B

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NO.30 Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles?
A. The Smartview Monitor
B. The standalone SmartProvisioning server
C. The Security Management server or CMA
D. They are fetched locally from the individual device
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CAT-140

Exam Name: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Professional Exam)

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NO.1 Named expressions enable you to:
A. Examine core components.
B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When using the Active Directory namespace, which Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (IDAP)
feature can you implement.?
A. IDAP paging
B. IDAP referrals
C. IDAP sorting operations
D. SSL connectivity using a native Windows Certificate database
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which feature applies to application roles?
A. They are limited to a single directory or directory type.
B. They define which resources, or group of resources, an application can access.
C. They are a logical representation of a resource and how CA SiteMinder protects it.
D. They define a set of users who have access to an application resource or a group of application
resources.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CAT-220

Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v12 Professional Exam )

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NO.1 You need to check the NTFS permissions for the folder in which the CA Productivity Accelerator (CAPA)
developer application files are installed. Which permissions should be set for this folder.? (Choose three)
A. List
B. Read
C. Delete
D. Modify
E. Execute
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 In CA Clarity, you can group related pages under a single menu item using:
A. portlet pages
B. pages with tabs
C. pages without tab
D. pages with a Content action
Answer: B

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NO.3 If the output file of a XOG write shows an updated record, what does it mean?
A. The object or instance did not exist in the database.
B. The object or instance was deleted from the database.
C. The object or instance already existed in the database.
D. The object or instance did not have a unique ID in the database.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which standard view is used to configure the grid listing of all the instances of an object that the user
has rights to see?
A. List Filter View
B. Properties View
C. List Column View
D. Edit Layouts View
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which functions apply to an NQSL query? (Choose two)
A. Execute XOG writes.
B. Filter on instances or object code.
C. Feed portlets with the required data.
D. Fetch data from multiple tables and offer it as a Web Service.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: ST0-135

Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )

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NO.1 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.2 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.7 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.13 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.14 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.15 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.17 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.18 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.19 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.21 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.22 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.23 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.25 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.26 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.28 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.30 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-148

Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )

ST0-148 (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment ) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/ST0-148.html

NO.1 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.6 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.7 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.9 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.15 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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