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Exam Code: 000-719
Exam Name: IBM (InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two tools should an InfoSphere Warehouse developer use to perform SQL Warehousing
design tasks? (Choose two.)
A. WebSphere Administration Console
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Design Studio
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Admin Console
D. SQL Warehousing Tool
E. IBM Data Studio
Answer: BD

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NO.2 A customer wants to evaluate deep data compression in an AIX development environment.
Which edition of InfoSphere Warehouse should they buy?
A. InfoSphere Warehouse Base
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Intermediate
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Advanced
D. InfoSphere Warehouse Developer
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does a Data Design Project within Design Studio contain?
A. physical data model
B. SQW work flows
C. data mining flows
D. logical data model
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about Rational Data Architect (RDA) integration with the Design Studio for data
modeling?
A. Design Studio integrates both logical and physical data modeling capabilities from RDA.
B. The full RDA can be installed into the Design Studio platform for logical and physical data modeling.
C. Design Studio includes the physical data modeling component to help you implement your physical
model.
D. Design Studio is based on IBM Data Server Developer Workbench and a full set of RDA components.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is meant by "Information as a Service"?
A. expanding a traditional data warehouse with XML capabilities for the data
B. extending the traditional data warehouse by providing business context layers to the data
C. accessing a traditional data warehouse with a Web-based application for the data
D. storing all analytical data in a multidimensional cube instead of a traditional data warehouse
Answer: B

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NO.6 You can use the Admin Console to add, remove, start, stop, or restart cubes.
For which other purpose can the Admin Console be used?
A. to rebuild a cubes member cache
B. to empty the member cache for a cube
C. to populate the member cache using a specified MDX query
D. to delete the files on the file system that are holding the member cache data
Answer: A

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NO.7 In a three node configuration, which two servers can contain InfoSphere Warehouse Intelligent Miner
components? (Choose two.)
A. Data Server
B. Mining Server
C. Client
D. Web Server
E. WebSphere Administration Server
Answer: AC

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NO.8 What are two reasons for a combination of database and front-end tool based analytic architectures in
a data warehouse implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Less data is moved across the network, making queries run faster.
B. The database can provide consistent analytic calculations and query speed for common queries.
C. The combination of architectures will ensure fast query performance.
D. Multidimensional queries cannot be processed in SQL by the database engine so it must be done
using a front-end tool.
E. The front-end tool allows for additional and more complex algorithms specific to applications that use
that tool.
Answer: BE

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NO.9 Which two functions can the SQW tool perform for a data flow? (Choose two.)
A. business processes such as secure command and secure FTP
B. range partitioning for staging tables
C. filtering and sorting for operator properties such as table columns
D. operators for row compression, roll-in, and roll-out
E. parallel process execution
Answer: BC

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NO.10 When using InfoSphere Warehouse, in which two occasions is it appropriate to run the InfoSphere
Warehouse configuration tool? (Choose two.)
A. any time you need to do reverse engineering
B. immediately before installation
C. any time after installation to modify your configuration
D. immediately after installation
E. any time after a new user is added to the warehousing solution
Answer: CD

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NO.11 During which installation and configuration process can user groups be mapped to each role?
A. the installation of InfoSphere Warehouse Server for the Administration node
B. the installation of InfoSphere Warehouse Server for Data node
C. the installation of WebSphere Application Server
D. the execution of the InfoSphere Warehouse Configuration Tool
Answer: D

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NO.12 When connecting an Output Port of a Table Source to the Names Port of a Sequences Operator, what
are two valid methods of mapping columns? (Choose two.)
A. by Name
B. by Index
C. by Position
D. by Attribute
E. by Key
Answer: AC

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NO.13 A customer needs to merge unstructured repositories with a traditional data mining solution for a
production environment.
Which edition of InfoSphere Warehouse should they buy?
A. InfoSphere Warehouse Base
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Intermediate
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Enterprise
D. InfoSphere Warehouse Developer
Answer: C

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NO.14 If you roll-in daily and roll-out monthly, which approach reduces the number of table partitions and
eases the DBA administrative tasks?
A. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for day.
B. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for month.
C. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for month.
D. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for day.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer wants to include analysis of product sales for their locations at various levels of their
product lines and various levels of their geography.
Which two schema considerations are necessary to satisfy the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. a product dimension with location attributes
B. a product dimension with product line hierarchies
C. a location dimension with product attributes
D. a location dimension with geography hierarchies
E. a product dimension with geography hierarchies
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which two InfoSphere Warehouse components are included in the logical group for the Application
Server? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Data Server Client
B. Intelligent Miner Visualization
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Workload Management plug-in
E. Design Studio
Answer: AC

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NO.17 Relational database and a database model that is often a star or snowflake schema are
characteristics of which engine storage structure?
A. MOLAP
B. ROLAP
C. Multidimensional cubing
D. Proprietary
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is a benefit of using warehouse based analytics?
A. It provides more functions in the available calculation set.
B. It ensures the user response time will always be fast.
C. It provides end users the ability to add additional calculations at report time.
D. It provides a common pool of analytic methods to produce consistent answers across all users.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two functions can the Design Studio perform? (Choose two.)
A. Run the Optimization Advisor and analyze whether the recommended MQTs will be used given a
predefined workload.
B. Drop cube models from the InfoSphere Warehouse metadata database.
C. Move and transform data.
D. Rebuild an OLAP cube's member cache.
E. Add an OLAP cube to the cube server.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 A control flow requires the use of a variable that seldom changes after deployment.
Which phase should be considered?
A. EXECUTION_INSTANCE
B. DEPLOYMENT
C. DEPLOYMENT_PREP
D. RUNTIME
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-438
Exam Name: IBM (Applying Fundamentals of Tivoli Business Automation Mgt2008)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 While scheduling the introductory meeting with a company, who should be the client contact for
invitations to the introductory meeting?
A. the technical contact
B. the process manager
C. the customer sponsor
D. the administrative assistant to the process manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two factors have the greatest impact on the scope and scale of a Business Process
Management solution? (Choose two.)
A. total headcount at each site
B. number of events processed per hour
C. gross e-commerce order volume per day
D. number of DNS names owned by the enterprise
E. number of integration points between subsystems
Answer: BE

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NO.3 What are the two best ways to identify and prioritize functional requirements for an automation?
(Choose two.)
A. based on personal expertise
B. based on current clients with similar networks
C. based on the client interviews reviewing their pain points
D. based on a clear understanding of the client's business processes
E. based on talking with the operators and asking them what they want
Answer: CD

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NO.4 After business requirements and processes have been identified, which steps are taken to automate
that process?
A. assess the specific steps required, determine critical processes, inform the client
B. determine critical processes, choose a subset of processes for a pilot, inform the client
C. assess the specific steps required, interview business process owners, inform the client
D. define the specific steps of the manual process, understand input and output functions of each step
within the process, determine steps suitable for automation
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two components of an existing infrastructure should be captured in initial business automation
requirement planning meetings with a client? (Choose two.)
A. Availability Monitoring
B. Performance Management
C. Human Resources Systems
D. Call Management Applications
E. Accounting Management Systems
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which factor is most significant when determining the viability of applications?
A. the number of users of the application
B. end user perception of the application
C. the software vendor's market capitalization
D. the flexibility, supportability, performance and coverage of the application
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a benefit of a single vendor solution?
A. easier to obtain maintenance and support
B. more likely to provide future business automation flexibility
C. greater likelihood of future stability in the business automation
D. easier to adapt new solutions from the Open Source community
Answer: A

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NO.8 A client's support staff and stakeholders are interviewed and pertinent data has been supplied.
Which three steps should be taken to understand the customer business automation goals? (Choose
three.)
A. list the experts related to business automation
B. identify the resource commitment from the client decision makers
C. determine any business automation dependencies in the business
D. define the business dependencies stated by the client's decision makers
E. identify the hardware requirements of the solution as defined by the customer
F. define the operational performance characteristics of the user interface for the solution
Answer: BCD

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NO.9 A consultant is mapping a client business processes to client-identified pain points.
Which method should the consultant use to help the client rank their pain points?
A. build a table with each business process, and associated pain, weighting each on a scale of 1-10 and
review it with the client
B. investigate business type (Telecommunications, Enterprise, Government Agency or Small/Medium
business) and identify organizational structure and size
C. determine how existing business automation processes can be used to alleviate the client pain points
and how those processes will be mapped to take the client requirements into account
D. break down the high-level business processes into low-level component processes and create a
document that shows the relationship between the low-level and high-level business processes
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two pieces of information are mapped against functional paths within an organization? (Choose
two.)
A. roles
B. stakeholders
C. requirements
D. responsibilities
E. IBM Tivoli products
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Before a requirements gathering session with the implementation team for a client project, the
customer liaison presents a list of experts. Later, at the requirements gathering session, it is apparent that
a team member would be a valuable expert for the project. What is the appropriate way to have this
person identified as an expert on the project?
A. begin copying the additional team member on all project communication
B. bypass the identified expert and begin communicating directly with the team member
C. communicate to the customer liaison that the team member has been included as an expert
D. contact the customer liaison, explain the situation, and ask for the appropriate way to have this person
included as an expert
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two steps should be performed after the interviews are completed and all third-party integrations
are identified? (Choose two.)
A. create a hardware solutions guide
B. review the list of client third-party applications
C. identify the relationships with support organizations
D. identify the operational support dashboard methodology
E. review the list of proposed business automation products
Answer: BE

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NO.13 What is an important factor when deploying a business automation solution into a customer
environment?
A. determine if a business automation solution was previously attempted
B. redefine the current workflows and practices used by the customer for business automation
C. gather the requirements for which business automation solutions will be deployed at a later date
D. set the expectations so that the client's strategic goals are clearly defined and are met by the business
automation solution
Answer: D

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NO.14 A client has a custom-made management system that they developed in-house that must be
integrated with the business automation solution. What is the correct approach for proving the
integration?
A. prove with an on-site Proof of Concept
B. replace the application with new software
C. re-create in a lab and provide an off-site proof of technology
D. develop the integration as part of the full solution deployment
Answer: A

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NO.15 A client core business is to supply widgets to the customer. An order desk is located in Florida, where
desktops are used by employees for general Lotus Notes e-mail, Lotus Sametime, and an Order
Application from customers who call in orders by telephone.
The client has a data center located in Oregon. It contains a distributed environment running Lotus Notes
and Lotus Sametime and a distributed environment running JD Edwards EnterpriseOne ERP. It has a
DB2 database on a mainframe that contains their product information and stock, and a distributed
environment that runs the Order Application.
The client has a distribution center in Illinois. It contains a distributed front-end for the Order Application,
which prints orders and allows the distribution center to update the amount of stock. Orders are fulfilled by
the distribution center and mailed directly to the customer. Stock is also received and updated by the
distribution center.
The IT group responsible for the Order Application wants to implement Change Management and target
the Order Application as the first application to manage.
Who are two Order Applications customers? (Choose two.)
A. the distribution center in Illinois
B. customers who call in their orders
C. the mainframe system administrators
D. end users in the order desk environment
E. the Order Application distributed environment system administrators
Answer: BD

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NO.16 After business automation roles are understood and organizational information is acquired, which
steps are taken to align business automation roles with individual employees?
A. interview individuals, determine responsibilities, document roles
B. interview individuals, determine responsibilities, review with client
C. interview individuals, verify job titles, determine experience, document roles
D. identify individuals, document roles and responsibilities, provide information to client for review
Answer: B

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NO.17 A telecommunications company configures their network equipment after receiving an order for a new
circuit from one of their customers. What is this an example of?
A. an automation
B. a key performance indicator
C. a low-level business process
D. a high-level business process
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which action is necessary for analyzing the underlying applications supporting a client's legacy
process?
A. contact the vendor for customer support information
B. determine the vendor, revision, and customer subject matter expert of each underlying application
C. determine the best practice implementation recommendations of each underlying legacy application
D. contact the customer subject matter expert to determine possible integration points for integration with
IBM products
Answer: B

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NO.19 In the first meeting with a customer, a half hour is dedicated to the meeting with a hard stop at the end.
The following roles are represented: the CIO, the CTO, a technical network professional, and an
application specialist. What should be the Solution Advisor's first step?
A. after brief introductions, discuss a high-level overview of their needs
B. focus on the CIO and the CTO, assuming there will be time to talk to the other attendees later
C. after brief introductions, have the network professional provide a diagram of the network data flow to
illustrate the problem
D. review the overriding business objective in the first ten minutes and move into a high-level, technical
overview of the solution
Answer: B

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NO.20 In Business Automation Management, what are performance, maintainability, and security
requirements considered to be?
A. automations
B. network events zones
C. functional requirements
D. non-functional requirements
Answer: D

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Exam Code: COG-480
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Planning Professional)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the purpose of providing an initial delivery to end-users which addresses only 80 to 90% of their
needs?
A. The users will be content with a solution that addresses most of their requirements.
B. The requirements can be completely changed and still finished in time.
C. The solution can more easily be fine-tuned through iterative development.
D. The solution can be completed through sequential steps and in time.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the benefit of using a methodology when developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution?
A. Allows accurate and complete development.
B. Allows development to be started before users are consulted.
C. Development can be done by less qualified consultants.
D. An iterative methodology can be used instead of waterfall.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why does using a methodology increase the chances of a project being successful?
A. Requirements do not have to be documented before a project is started.
B. Requirements can be changed throughout the project lifespan.
C. Development follows predetermined phases based on proven practice.
D. Development must be completed within predetermined timescales.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement describes how Proven Practices are created?
A. Proven Practice is driven by product management to provide strict guidelines for modelers.
B. Proven Practice is developed by a specialist team who understand how the products work.
C. A variety of teams input ideas based on how customers are effectively using the products.
D. Support personnel provide tips and techniques to customers to help them create effective models.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are designing a production planning solution with IBM Cognos 8 Planning. Units will be input by the
regional production managers. Production rates for each factory are set centrally and do not change.
What is the primary consideration for the designer?
A. How easy will it be to update production rates.
B. How easy will it be to input units.
C. How quickly can assumption data be input.
D. How quickly can the list of factories be updated.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which aspect of the Waterfall approach makes it less appropriate to use for developing planning
applications?
A. There is no Analyze phase; the steps go from Plan directly to Design.
B. Steps are followed sequentially without returning to previous steps.
C. Technical constraints tend to overrule user requirements.
D. This approach can only be implemented using large teams.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, when is prototyping most useful?
A. When the user requirements are unclear.
B. When the development team is very large.
C. When the client can afford the extra time and cost required.
D. When the solution is being implemented for a department other than Finance.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You implement an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution which fulfills the users' needs. Two years later the
performance of the Go To Production and Reconciliation processes take an unacceptable time to run.
What may have been overlooked in the original design phase?
A. the frequency that the planning process is run
B. the number of BI reports based on planning data
C. the increase in the number of e.List items with time
D. the volume of assumption data in the Analyst model
Answer: C

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NO.9 During the design phase of an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, the Planning and BI teams meet to
discuss the reporting requirements. Which proposed change must be discussed by the whole
implementation team?
A. The number of users who will consume reports based on Planning information.
B. The D-Lists that will be used to represent the measures in reports.
C. The D-Lists that will represent time in the planning application.
D. The number of users who will perform data entry into the planning application.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You identify that last year's actuals will be used as a basis for this year's plan. This data resides in a
database and will be loaded into Contributor. The data is very sensitive and security is important to the
customer. What are two solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Load from a Cognos package using the database as a source.
B. Use an ETL tool to load directly from the database avoiding the Copy and Load process.
C. Use the standard Copy, Load, and Prepare process in the Contributor administration console.
D. Load into Analyst and then export to a flat file and Copy, Load, and Prepare into Contributor.
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: LOT-849
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You have created a Domino cluster of two servers for your mail users. You are attempting to enable the
Out of Office server service. Which of the following best describes why this feature is not functioning?
A.One server is Domino 8 and one server is Domino 7.
B.The servers are in different organizational certifiers.
C.User are utilzing the calendar access view in Lotus Notes 8.
D.User are utilizing Lotus Notes clients and Domino Web Access.
Answer:A

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NO.2 In order to save time, the Domino administrator wants to establish a default setting for numerous
portions of a policy document. Which of the following actions provide this function?
A."How to apply" in the policy document
B."User defined" in the person document
C."Set standard" agent in the Domino Directory
D."Default setting" in the server configuration document
Answer:A

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NO.3 When are custom password policies downloaded to the user's id file?
A.When the user closes the Notes client
B.When the user authenticates with their home server
C.When the user is directed to authenticate with a hub server
D.When the user selects the option to synchronize their Notes password
Answer:B

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NO.4 New and updated features and plug-ins for the Lotus Notes client are downloaded from which of the
following?
A.Client sites
B.Updates sites
C.Smart Upgrade sites
D.Provisioning client
Answer:B

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NO.5 DaJuan wishes to review the status of all the successful Smart Upgrades performed but finds that
some of the reports are missing. What is the cause of these missing reports?
A.Successful Smart Upgrades do not generate reports.
B.Smart Upgrades have no reporting associated with them.
C.He is not currently looking at the reports in the archive view.
D.He waited to view reports outside of the number of days to keep reports.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Virginia is utilizing the Manage Groups tool from the Domino administrator client. She has chosen
'Only member hierarchies'. What restrictions will that place on the search results?
A.It will prevent terminated employees from accessing servers.
B.It will display all of the groups in which the selected user is a member.
C.It will list by organization, all people and groups in the selected directory.
D.It will list alphabetically, all people and groups in the selected directory.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Previously in Lotus Notes, users would utilize the word AND in all capital letters to accrue for searches.
However, the default in Domino 8 uses which of the following for accrual?
A.comma
B.period
C.apostrophe
D.quotations
Answer:A

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NO.8 Brenda, the Domino administrator, is creating a probe for DDM. What are the possible scheduling
options the probe could run?
A.A schedule that Brenda specifies
B.A schedule decided by the administration hub server
C.The probe can run on an as-needed basis as configured by Brenda
D.DDM probe schedules may not be modified and must use the default settings
Answer:A

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NO.9 Dominique has a number of open Notes documents in her Notes client, and she would like to quickly
close all the tabs at once. How can she do this?
A.Actions Close All Tabs
B.File Close Current Open
C.Actions Close Current Open
D.File Close All Open Window Tabs
Answer:D

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NO.10 Mariam incorrectly entered her Internet password numerous times and the lockout policy disabled her
access. As the administrator, where would you proceed to unlock her user account and what is the result
of unlocking her account?
A.You open inetlockout.nsf; unlocking the user does not change their password on next login.
B.You open names.nsf; unlocking the user forces the user to change their password on next login.
C.You open certsrv.nsf; unlocking the user forces both their Notes and Internet password to be changed
on next login.
D.You open passhold.nsf; unlocking the user resets the user password which they receive in an
automatically generated email.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which of the following Notes client tasks automates the deployment of policies to the users?
A.ndyncfg
B.nupdate
C.nplcyupd
D.ncfgclient
Answer:A

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NO.12 Your deployed composite applications are updating on a scheduled basis. Which of the following may
a composite application reference as application requirements when deployed to Lotus Notes 8 users?
A.A local update.xml file
B.Only one Eclipse feature
C.One or more Eclipse features
D.A remote Portal Authentication URL
Answer:C

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NO.13 Sang uses the Administration Process (AdminP) to move a user's mail file to a different mail server.
What must Sang do in order for the new mail file to be created and the old mail file to be deleted?
A.Update the user's location documents.
B.Modify the mailserver field in the user's person document.
C.Give the user rights to create new databases on the new mail server.
D.Approve the deletion of the old mail file in the ADMIN4.NSF database.
Answer:D

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NO.14 JoAnne lost a document she had been creating in a Domino application when the power in the building
failed. The Autosave feature was active. What must JoAnne do to recover her work?
A.Restart Notes with the recover option.
B.Launch the Autosave database (as_autosave.nsf) and retrieve the saved document.
C.Relaunch Notes, select Yes for recovering unsaved documents, and select the specific unsaved
document to recover.
D.Open the application and select Recover Changes from the Edit menu. The changes are recovered
from the hidden $Autosave view.
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which policy allows the administrator to configure lock-down settings per field?
A.Mail policy settings document
B.Desktop policy settings document
C.Archive policy settings document
D.Registration policy settings document
Answer:A

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NO.16 The Calendar Cleanup tool is available in which policy setting document?
A.Archive
B.Desktop
C.Security
D.Registration
Answer:A

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NO.17 New users are attempting to change their Lotus Notes user.id password. However, anyone that
attempts to end the new password with an exclamation point is denied from using that new password.
What is the cause of this denial?
A.Custom client policy
B.Custom desktop policy
C.Custom control policy
D.Custom password policy
Answer:D

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NO.18 Xavier has recently created a security policy that forces the user to change their Notes password the
first time they use the client. However, existing users are not being forced to do so. What is the cause of
this?
A.The policy was not assigned during registration.
B.The user has already changed their Notes password.
C.The policy does not have a forced password length.
D.The user has logged in from the web via HTTP first.
Answer:A

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NO.19 What step is required before creating a resource document?
A.A mail document
B.A site document
C.A mail-in database for the resource
D.A hub server running the RnRMgr task
Answer:B

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NO.20 Vince, an end user, has noticed that his room reservation still has an hourglass icon next to it in the
resource.nsf database. What is a likely cause of seeing this icon?
A.The request for the reservation has been accepted.
B.The request for the reservation has been declined.
C.The request for the reservation is pending system approval.
D.The request for the reservation needs the resource owner approval.
Answer:C

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NO.21 By entering the server console command "show schedule -DDM", what result is displayed?
A.Which programs are scheduled to run
B.What agents are scheduled to run next
C.The probes that are scheduled to run next
D.The next scheduled replication time and the replication type
Answer:C

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NO.22 Which one of the following best describes the client version reporting feature?
A.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version only is added to the Person document in
the Domino Directory.
B.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version only is added to the version control
document in the log file.
C.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version and operating system platform machine
name are added to the Person document in the log file.
D.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version and operating system platform machine
name are added to the Person document in the Domino Directory.
Answer:D

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NO.23 The default period for a user rename request to remain active is how many days?
A.14 days
B.21 days
C.30 days
D.60 days
Answer:B

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NO.24 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of the
following locations do they enable this ability?
A.The server document
B.The security policy document
C.The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D.The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer:D

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NO.25 Disclaimer text may be added by the server in which of the following locations in a mail memo?
A.Top of the body only
B.Top and bottom of the body
C.As attachment and subject line
D.Subject line and bottom of body
Answer:B

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NO.26 In which of the following databases does the Server Health Monitor store it's health reports?
A.shmon.nsf
B.dommon.nsf
C.statrep.nsf
D.serverhm.nsf
Answer:B

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NO.27 Cindy, the Domino administrator, is having issues with numerous mail rules acting sequentially on a
message. What should she do to interrupt the mail rules from being processed?
A.Create a 'stop processing' action in the rules.
B.Issue a 'stop processing' command on the server console.
C.Issue a 'stop processing' command on the server through a program document.
D.Create an agent in mail.box to stop all rule processing after a certain time.
Answer:A

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NO.28 The Activity Trends database is called which of the following?
A.Trends.nsf
B.Activity.nsf
C.ActTrend.nsf
D.ActvTrnd.nsf
Answer:B

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NO.29 Kathleen, the Domino administrator, has created a new message disclaimer in a policy and wishes to
push that to the clients. What command can Kathleen utilize to force the process?
A.tell server process disclaimer
B.tell server process nmdisclaim
C.tell adminp process mailpolicy
D.tell adminp process disclaimer
Answer:C

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NO.30 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to configure
in this policy?
A.The ability to open SmartSuite files
B.The ability to allow the user to run macros
C.The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D.The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 000-374
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, System Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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000-374 (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, System Administration) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-374.html

NO.1 An administrator wants to define a IBMWebSphere MQ object so that the applications can be
prevented from sending messages to the processing applications queue APPQ, but continue to allow
administrators to send test messages to the processing application. The application will send messages
using an object
ABC.
What MQSC command should be used?
A. DEFINE QALIAS(ABC) BASEQ(APPQ)
B. DEFINE QALIAS(ABC) TARGET(APPQ)
C. DEFINE QREMOTE(ABC) TARGET(APPQ)
D. DEFINE QLOCAL(ABC) ALIASQ(APPQ)
E. DEFINE QMODEL(ABC) BASEQ(APPQ)
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator wants to prevent the channel initiator process from starting when a queue manager
QMA on AIX is started.
Which action(s) will accomplish this?
A. Restart the queue manager using strmqm ns QMA.
B. Restart the queue manager using strmqm chinit no QMA.
C. Issue the command ALTER QMGR SCHINIT(DISABLED), then restart the queue manager using
strmqm QMA.
D. Edit the file qm.ini for QMA and add an entry ChannelInitiator = No in the CHANNELS stanza, then
restart the queue manager using strmqm QMA
Answer: A

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NO.3 An application deployed on z/OS was causing frequent abends.
Which of the following options from the IPCS Dump Component Panel can an administrator use to
analyze
the problem?
A. CSQWDMP
B. ASMCHECK
C. DIVDATA
D. DAEDATA
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the four predefined message types?
A. Request, response, publication, datagram
B. Publication, subscription, request, response
C. Request, reply, report, datagram
D. Request, broadcast, acknowledgment, response
Answer: C

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NO.5 A legacy application uses MQPUT to send messages to a queue INV. Which set of MQSC commands
below will successfully configure the queue manager so that a number of
JMS applications can receive these messages by subscribing to topic Inventory/CurrentItems?
A. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE QALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
B. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE TALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
C. DEFINE TOPIC (INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems) QALIAS(INV)
D. DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(Inventory/CurrentItems) + TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company running IBM WebSphere MQ V5.3 on UNIX upgraded to IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0.
Immediately after the migration, what is the administrator expected to do?
Start the:
A. MQSeries service
B. queue manager and listener simultaneously
C. queue manager before starting the listener
D. listener before starting the queue manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator has been asked to create a queue manager alias for QM1 to be used for
communication
between remote queue managers.
What MQSC command will create the queue manager alias?
A. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(' ') XMITQ(QM1)
B. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(' ') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(QM1)
C. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(' ')
D. DEF QL(QM1.ALIAS) RQMNAME(QM1)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true, regarding applications that communicate via
IBMWebSphere MQ?
IBM WebSphere MQ applications have to agree upon:
A. the platforms they are running on
B. the name(s) of the queue(s) used
C. the maximum number of messages sent within a given time period
D. the layout of the message data exchanged
E. the network protocol used
Answer: BD

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NO.9 An administrator has been asked to determine which files are needed to restart a queue manager
configured with linear logging.
Which of the following MQSC commands will determine which log files are still required?
A. DISPLAY QMGR
B. DISPLAY QMSTATUS
C. DISPLAY QMSTATUS ALL
D. DISPLAY QMGR RESTART
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator using WebSphere MQ Explorer is unable to connect to queue manager PROD after it
has been migrated, and receives error message SYSTEM.MQEXPLORER.REPLY.MODEL not defined.
Which command will refresh the existing system objects to resolve this issue?
A. strmqm c PROD
B. strmqm a PROD
C. strmqm ss PROD
D. strmqm si PROD
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following are performance enhancements to the Java Message Service provider
implementation in IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Read Ahead
B. Support for channel exits written in C/C++
C. Asynchronous Put
D. Message selection performed by Queue Manager
E. Ability to access all MQMD fields for IBM WebSphere MQ messages.
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 What are the advantages of using queue-sharing groups in IBM WebSphere MQ?
A. workload balancing, remote administration
B. improved performance, ease of monitoring
C. scalability, end-to-end security, data integrity
D. scalability, high availability, workload balancing
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator will install IBM WebSphere MQ on an AIX platform. There is a requirement to
configure
the installation to store the queue managers data files under a directory tree different from the default
specified by the installation.
After creating the appropriate directory tree, the administrator should:
A. specify the file location using the -ld option when running the crtmqm command.
B. add an entry for the variable MQSPREFIX in /var/mqm/service.env before running the crtmqm
command.
C. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify LogDefaultPath in the LogDefaults stanza before running the crtmqm
command.
D. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify DefaultPrefix in the AllQueueManagers stanza before running the
crtmqm command.
Answer: D

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NO.14 For the Solaris platform, which databases are supported as a resource manager in transactions
coordinated by IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Oracle, Derby, My SQL
B. DB2, Derby, Teradata
C. DB2, Oracle, Informix, Sybase
D. DB2, SQL Server, Sybase, Informix
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator has created the following MQ objects on two systems:
SYSTEM A
crtmqm -C "VEGGIE QUEUE MANAGER" -LL -Q -D POTATO VEGGIE
DEFINE QR(APPLE) RQMNAME(FRUIT) RNAME(PEACH)
DEFINE QL(DLQ)
DEFINE QL(POTATO) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEF CHL('VEGGIE. FRUIT') CHLTYPE(SDR) TRPTYPE(TCP) CONNAME('9.84.100.7(1414)') +
XMITQ('POTATO')
SYSTEM B
crtmqm -C "FRUIT QUEUE MANAGER" -LL -Q -D GRAPE FRUIT
DEFINE QL(GRAPE) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEFINE QL(PEACH)
DEF CHL('VEGGIE. FRUIT') CHLTYPE(RCVR) TRPTYPE(TCP)
An application connects to queue manager VEGGIE and puts a message to queue APPLE. On which
queue does the message get delivered before it gets picked up by the sender channel?
A. POTATO
B. APPLE
C. GRAPE
D. PEACH
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator has created a queue manager on AIX system A, using the command crtmqm ll QMA.
What command will create a backup queue manager for QMA on AIX system B?
A. crtmqm ll QMB
B. crtmqm ll QMA
C. crtmqm lb QMA
D. crtmqm ll backup QMA
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which Eclipse version is a prerequisite to use MQ Explorer to administer IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 on
Windows?
A. 3.3
B. 3.2
C. 3.1
D. 3.0
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator created a queue manager Paint.queue.manager on AIX with circular logging. The
administrator then was told that the system will be used for production, so the logging needs to be
switched to linear.
How can the administrator make this change?
A. Edit "/var/mqm/mqs.ini" and change LogType=LINEAR
B. Edit "/var/mqm/qmgrs/Paint.queue.manager/qm.ini" and change LogType=LINEAR
C. Issue the MQSC command ALTER QMGR LOGTYPE(LINEAR)
D. Recreate queue manager with crtmqm -c "Paint shop" -ll -q Paint.queue.manager
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which features of IBM WebSphere MQ specifically provide robust message transport?
A. Data integrity, security, parallel processing
B. Asynchronous delivery, once and once-only delivery, persistent messaging
C. Time independence, no duplicate delivery, synchronous processing
D. Assured delivery, application parallelism, time dependent applications
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two user profiles are mandatory to correctly run IBM WebSphere MQ on i5/OS?
A. QMQM, QMQMADM
B. QMQMADIM, mqm
C. mqm, QMQM
D. mqm, MUSR_MQADMIN
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-800
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Lotus Sametime 8)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The Domino Single Sign-On (SSO) feature must be enabled on the Sametime 8 server. Which of the
following is also required for Sametime server authentication?
A.SSL.
B.LDAP server.
C.Directory Assistance.
D.Fully qualified DNS name.
Answer:D

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NO.2 A meeting manager wishes to schedule a meeting to be held on multiple meeting servers titled Server A
and B. Creating a Sametime Connection document to connect the Meeting Services of Source Sametime
Server A with Destination Sametime Server B will cause which one of the following to happen?
A.The meeting scheduled on Sametime Server B will become active on Sametime Server A when it
begins, but a meeting scheduled on Sametime Server A will not have the option of becoming active on
Sametime Server B.
B.The meeting scheduled on Sametime Server A will only become active on Sametime Server B when it
begins, but a meeting scheduled on Sametime Server B will would also have the option of becoming
active on Sametime Server A.
C.The meeting scheduled on Sametime Server A will appear in the Sametime Server B schedule and then
become active on Sametime Server B when it begins, but a meeting scheduled on Sametime Server B
will not have the option of appearing in the Sametime Server A schedule or becoming active on Sametime
Server A.
D.The meeting scheduled on Sametime Server B will appear in the Sametime Server A schedule and then
become active on Sametime Server A when it begins, but a meeting scheduled on Sametime Server A will
not have the option of appearing in the Sametime Server B schedule or becoming active on Sametime
Server B.
Answer:C

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NO.3 Assigning user access to the Sametime Gateway can only be assigned to which of the following?
A.External users
B.Federated users
C.Local Users
D.Clearinghouse users
Answer:C

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NO.4 Hans, the Sametime Administrator, is receiving capacity warnings for scheduled meetings that include
audio/video. Which one of the following describes a way that this type of meeting attendance can be
limited?
A.Only instant meetings can be limited, he would not be able to limit scheduled meetings
B.He can limit attendance for both scheduled meetings that incorporate audio and those that incorporate
video capabilities
C.He only has the ability to limit attendance for all scheduled meetings only, not just audio/video meetings
in particular
D.He cannot limit attendance for any scheduled audio/video meetings, it is decided by total server
meeting capacity only which would need to be modified
Answer:B

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NO.5 You wish for users to still transfer files if even if the virus scanning fails to load or scan the file in transit.
Which of the following is the proper choice to allow this functionality?
A.Open
B.Relax
C.Strict
D.Closed
Answer:B

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NO.6 As the Sametime administrator, you have the Sametime Meeting Room clients using HTTP to
establish connections with the Community Services multiplexer. Which of the following features did you
enable?
A.Disable Direct TCP/IP connectivity to Community Services
B.Redirect Community Service client connections to HTTP tunneling
C.Provide HTTP tunneling services to SOCKS Proxy connections for Community Services
D.Enable the Meeting Room client to try HTTP tunneling to the Community Services after trying other
options
Answer:D

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NO.7 You have been asked to modify the end time of a meeting that Alicia created and you are not listed as
an attendee. Which of the following rights do you require on the Sametime server?
A.MeetingManager role in stresc.nsf
B.Sametime Admin role in stconf.nsf
C.SametimeAdmin role in stconfig.nsf
D.Meeting Manager role in stcenter.nsf
Answer:B

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NO.8 You are utilizing the Sametime Gateway to connect your Sametime environment to another SIP
environment. Which of the following is required to be specified in your Sametime LDAP settings?
A.The cn value in the LDAP server must be unique
B.The lookup from Sametime to the LDAP server must be one level deep
C.The "Attribute of a person entry that defines a person's e-mail address" must be defined
D.The name that binds to the LDAP server from Sametime must be a LDAP administrator and local
administrator
Answer:C

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NO.9 With a Sametime server utilizing LDAP servers as the authenticating sources, which of the following is
the order in which directory lookups are performed?
A.Sametime clients connect directly to the LDAP server.
B.Sametime clients connect to the Sametime server. The Sametime server redirects the Sametime client
to connect directly to the LDAP server.
C.Sametime clients connect to the Sametime server. The Sametime server establishes a network
connection to the LDAP server and passes the Sametime client to the LDAP server.
D.Sametime clients connect to the Sametime server. The Sametime server establishes a network
connection to the LDAP server and performs searches and authentication on behalf of the Sametime
clients.
Answer:D

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NO.10 To deploy integration features for Microsoft Office and Sametime, certain processing and steps must
be performed by the administrator. Which of the following best represent the necessary requirements?
A.Modify the install.xml file to enable msofficeinstall.exe.
B.Modify the download.properties file to invoke oi_setup.bat.
C.Modify the install manifest to exclude plugin_customization.ini.
D.Modify the compatibility setting to match the currently deployed version number for Microsoft Office
Answer:B

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NO.11 When upgrading a Linux client from Sametime Connect 7.5.x to 8.x, which of the following is true?
A.The client is installed into a fresh directory and preferences and configuration data are migrated
B.The client installation location is upgraded and a site update migrates the preferences to the new
version
C.The sample features are uninstalled and preferences reset while the previous client is uninstalled and
the new client installed
D.The previous client is uninstalled, the preferences written to a temporary directory and migrated upon
completion of the new client
Answer:A

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NO.12 Lotus support has requested that you create trace files for troubleshooting Sametime. Which of the
following tools allows you to create these files?
A.StDebugTool.exe
B.StTraceTool.exe
C.SametimeTrace.exe
D.StTraceManager.exe
Answer:A

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NO.13 Since implementing a reverse proxy server for Sametime, which of the following will not function from
outside the reverse proxy?
A.Sametime links
B.Sametime administration tool
C.Sametime Connect for browsers
D.Sametime Recorded Meeting client
Answer:B

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NO.14 Miranda, a Sametime user, has logged into the Sametime server on her workstation with her integrated
client through Notes. She then proceeds to log into Sametime Connect through her laptop at the same
time. Both machines are on her company network and she has a home Sametime server specified in her
person document. Which of the following will occur?
A.Both of her session will continue because you can log in with two different types clients at the same time.
B.Her session with Sametime Connect will be denied access because the Notes client was logged into
Sametime first.
C.Her session with the Notes client will be immediately dropped and chats will continue on her Sametime
Connect client.
D.Her Notes client will prompt her to continue with both sessions or drop the second client that is
attempting to log in.
Answer:C

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NO.15 As the Sametime administrator, you have configured Sametime to tunnel HTTPS connections over
port 443 for SSL. However, you also allow need to allow connections via HTTPS for Web traffic on the
same port. Which of the following is needed to have this function correctly?
A.Multiple IP addresses must be assigned to the Sametime server machine
B.Sametime must be configured to allow HTTPS connections a lower priority
C.Web connections over HTTPS must be configured via the server document to have a lower priority
D.The SSL certificate must have two hostnames with one applied to Sametime and one applied to the
Domino Web server
Answer:A

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NO.16 As the administrator, you have created a Sametime Community cluster containing 3 (three) servers,
with all servers configured to utilize a dedicated meeting server outside of the cluster. Currently users are
logged into all the servers. A user on server 1 requests an instant meeting with users that are currently
logged into server 2 and server 3. On which server does the meeting take place?
A.The meeting will take place on the dedicated meeting server for all the users.
B.The meeting will take place on the Community server of the person requesting the meeting for all the
users.
C.The meeting will be generated on all the Community servers with each user attending on the server that
they are currently connected to.
D.The meeting will take place on the configured dedicated meeting server for the invited attendees, but
the meeting requestor will stay on the Community server they are connected to
Answer:B

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NO.17 While in the Sametime Connect 8.0 client, you wish to retrieve a new plug-in to enable into your client.
Which of the following provides this capability?
A.New Tool Site
B.New Remote Site
C.New Server Site
D.New Plug-in Site
Answer:B

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NO.18 A user that does not authenticate to access a meeting from the Sametime Meeting Center, appears as
which of the following names by default?
A.User
B.Guest
C.Unknown
D.Anonymous
Answer:A

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NO.19 You have successfully created numerous Sametime policies assigned to users and groups in a LDAP
directory. However, you wish to see just the policies that apply to the Europe group. Which of the following
will accomplish this?
A.LDAP folder filters
B.Policy search filters
C.Group policy listings
D.Sametime policy sorting
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which of the following terms describes the ability of a user to detect when other users are online?
A.Polling
B.Presence
C.Location
D.Participant List
Answer:B

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