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Exam Code: MAYA11-A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 What effect does the Break Tangent action have on a selected animation tangent?
A. Allows manipulation of the in and out tangent handles individually so you can edit the curve
segment entering or exiting the key without affecting its opposite handle.
B. Causes the manipulation of an in or out tangent handle to affect its opposite handle equally
C. Specifies that when you move a tangent, only its angle can be changed.
D. Specifies that when you move a tangent its angle and weight can be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is the correct method to make the current transformations on the selected object be
the object's zero position
A. Edit>Delete option
B. Modify>Freeze Transformations option.
C. Modify>Delete Attribute Transformations option.
D. Skeleton>OrientJoint>Freeze Transformations option
Answer: B

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NO.5 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is meant by 'sampling'?
A. The amount of Rendering Layers to be calculated in an image
B. The amount of times the software will examine different areas of a pixel
C. The number of photons that get emitted into the scene.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a
brush
Answer: B

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NO.8 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ABV
Exam Name: IFPUG (Accredited in Business Valuation (ABV))
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Total Q&A: 344 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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NO.2 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.4 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 201-01
Exam Name: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 195 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

Riverbed   201-01 test   201-01 exam

NO.2 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.5 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

Riverbed   201-01   201-01

NO.7 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.8 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

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NO.10 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

Riverbed   201-01   201-01

NO.12 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.16 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.17 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

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NO.18 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

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NO.20 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BCP-221
Exam Name: BlackBerry (supporting BlackBerry Devices/Enterprise version 5.0)
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Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Since upgrading the BlackBerry Device Software, a BlackBerry device user is reporting that custom
audio notifications are no longer configured. Which two of the following options may resolve the issue?
(Choose two.)
A. Synchronize using BlackBerry Desktop Manager to import any pre-existing custom audio profiles
B. Create a new Audio Profile in BlackBerry Desktop Manager Media Manager and import it with the
application loader tool
C. Manually recreate the lost notifications in the Profiles application of the BlackBerry device
D. If a backup file was created in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, restoring the Options database will
restore custom profiles
E. Download new ring tone content from the service provider and install using the BlackBerry Browser
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A BlackBerry device user does not possess an organizer application like Microsoft Outlook. Which
translator will work for them to obtain a copy of their contacts and calendar on the computer with
BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Plain Text
B. ASCII text
C. CSV
D. Notepad
E. Wordpad
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop
Manager that is installed? (Choose two.)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties
B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Help > About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top of the
application
D. Open Control panel > Add / remove programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose lick here for
support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which two of the following are types of searches that can be performed in the BTSC? (Choose two.)
A. Targeted
B. Software assisted
C. Boolean
D. Natural Language
E. Choice Focused
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which two of the following media card settings on the BlackBerry device need to be turned on to copy
files between Windows Explorer and the media card? (Choose two.)
A. Media Card Support
B. USB Flash Drive Bypass Mode
C. Mass Storage Mode Support
D. USB Dongle Support
E. Auto Enable Mass Storage Mode When Connected
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing
and no email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the
cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The user does not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for f no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No The
BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery Theuser mail client
rules/policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt
Answer: B

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NO.7 .When performing a backup of the BlackBerry device using the backup and restore tool in BlackBerry
Desktop Manager, what is the file extension of the backup file that is created? (Choose one.)
A. .bak
B. .sav
C. .ipd
D. .fil
E. .tmp
Answer: C

BlackBerry   BCP-221 exam   BCP-221

NO.8 Which three of the following steps can be taken to secure a BlackBerry device remotely if it has been
activated on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.).
A. Reset the password and lock the BlackBerry device
B. Apply a more restrictive IT policy
C. Send a 911 notification to the service provider with the BlackBerry device PIN from the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Push disabled service books to the BlackBerry device
E. Perform a remote security wipe and disable the BlackBerry device
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)Which of the following will resolve a
VM 517 error (Choose one.)
A. Removing and re-inserting the BlackBerry device battery
B. Performing a security wipe
C. Setting appropriate content store permissions
D. Reinstalling the BlackBerry Device Software using the application loader tool
E. Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry
device SIM Card
Answer: D

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NO.10 By default, which three of the following options will delete all the user data on a BlackBerry device?
(Choose three.)
A. Enter incorrect password 10 times
B. Use the Wipe command in BlackBerry Device Manager
C. Choose Wipe Handheld from general options in security settings
D. Uninstall any application from the Application Permissions menu
E. Use the application loader tool to install new BlackBerry device software
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 What happens after the BlackBerry device user has entered the enterprise activation information and
selects Activate on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service contacts the BlackBerry device over the wireless network and
negotiates an encryption key
B. The BlackBerry device submits an ETP.DAT email message directly to the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server
C. The BlackBerry device submits the enterprise activation data to the wireless network
D. The system administrator of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will receive a request to activate, which
can either be accepted or denied
E. The BlackBerry device service books are verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is taking place at the Verifying Encryption stage of the wireless enterprise activation process?
(Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are negotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device is being compressed, encrypted and sent over the
wireless network to the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security
considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security
considerations
Answer: E

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NO.13 A BlackBerry device user activates with an incorrect password. What error message will be displayed
on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Incorrect password. Please try again.
B. An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator.
C. Invalid email address or password.
D. Error.
E. Invalid login credentials.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two files are generated by the BlackBerry Desktop Manager during synchronization with
advanced logging enabled? (Choose two.)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. Pttrace.log
E. Sync.log
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following components must be selected during a custom install of BlackBerry Desktop
Software for S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one.)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerry Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support
Answer: D

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NO.16 A BlackBerry device user notices email messages are being randomly deleted from the BlackBerry
device only days after receiving them. The user is not active on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server and does
not use BlackBerry Desktop Manager to synchronize with the messaging client. What are two possible
reasons the user email messages are being deleted? (Choose two.)
A. The email messages database is corrupt
B. The BlackBerry device user does not have sufficient network coverage
C. The BlackBerry device is in a low memory state
D. The hosted mailbox has reached its storage limit
E. The email messages are being automatically filed and hidden
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which three of the following steps occur during the wireless enterprise activation process? (Choose
three.)
A. Service books are sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device reboots after it has finished synchronizing all organizer data (PIM) items
C. An encryption key is negotiated between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server populates the PIN number of the BlackBerry device in the
BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the user computer to complete the last stage of the
wireless enterprise activation process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.18 A user wants to connect a BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager using Bluetooth to
synchronize. Which of the following are requirements? (Choose one.)
A. The computer must be running the Bluetooth software from the manufacturer of the Bluetooth adapter
B. The BlackBerry Bluetooth to USB driver must be installed on the computer
C. The BlackBerry device must have the Wireless Bypass service enabled
D. The BlackBerry device must have the Bluetooth Sync service enabled
E. The computer and the BlackBerry Device must have line of sight of each other
Answer: C

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NO.19 A BlackBerry device user is trying to synchronize personal data and is receiving the following error: No
applications configured for synchronization What might cause this error? (Choose one.)
A. The user MAPI profile is corrupt
B. Other synchronization software on the user computer has caused a conflict
C. The Synchronize application has not been installed in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. The user has not run through the configuration steps for the Synchronize application
E. Duplicate items in the user registry have caused a conflict
Answer: D

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NO.20 If the BlackBerry device is displaying a lower case edge connection status, which two of the following
actions can a BlackBerry device user perform on the BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Browse the Internet
B. Send or receive email messages
C. Send or receive SMS messages
D. Send or receive PIN messages
E. Make or receive phone calls
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: BCP-811
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Developing Java Applications for the BlackBerry Platform)
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Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Consider the following small application which creates a linked list like structure:
After execution, at which statement does the ListElement object created at line 6 become a candidate for
garbage collection? (Choose one.)
A. 16
B. 17
C. 21C.21
D. 22D.22
E. 23E.23
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which keys are required to use the encryption classes in the Java API in order to store encrypted data
on a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Code development keys
B. Code signing keys
C. Code runtime keys
D. Code encryption keys
E. Code storage keys
Answer: B

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NO.3 Consider the addTask() method defined below. Its purpose is to receive incoming tasks and put them
into a Vector, _tasks. Another thread will continuously remove the task at index 0 from the Vector.
Assuming that addTask() is being invoked at a rate roughly equal to the rate at which the tasks are being
processed, which concurrency issue may occur during execution? (Choose one.)
A. Livelock
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Starvation
E. Unfairness
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two of the following classes could be used to check the coverage status? (Choose two.)
A. Radio
B. ConnectionFactory
C. TransportInfo
D. CoverageSate
E. CoverageInfo
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 A developer is writing a game with custom graphics and animations that will need to fit on multiple
screen sizes for various BlackBerry devices. The developer needs to minimize the number of images
created for the game. Which API will support these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SVG
B. Display
C. Transition
D. Multimedia
E. Game
Answer: A

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NO.6 A developer is designing a BlackBerry device application that provides summaries of large amounts of
data. The summaries require extensive computations. Which design approach will meet these
requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Store the full set of data locally on removable media using a compressed format
B. Supplement memory available on the BlackBerry device and compute the results locally
C. Use URL encodings to expedite the transfer of data between a remote server and the
BlackBerry device
D. Compute the summary on a remote server and access the results through a BlackBerry
Enterprise Server connection
E. Use local storage and the floating point processor on the BlackBerry device to speed up computations
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which push header should be used to verify that push requests are received by a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Transport
B. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-Before Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
C. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-After: Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
D. X-Rim-Push-Priority: High
E. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Application
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which block of code will ensure that a network connection has been closed? (Choose one.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Answer: A

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NO.9 A developer has been asked to create an application that will display the full name of all people in a
BlackBerry device user address book. The following code is written:
Which two of the following actions must be taken before this code is executed to ensure
compatibility across all versions of BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose two.)
A. The application should initialize all entries of thecontactName String array to empty Strings
B. The application should use theContact.countValues method to verify that the Contact.NAME field
contains an entry
C. The application should verify that it can write to the user address book using
theApplicationPermissions API
D. The application should use theisNull method to verify that the Contact.NAME values are not null
E. The application should use theContactList.isSupportedField method to verify that the
Contact.NAME field can be read
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 An application receives notification that a new data object is being saved in the RuntimeStore. It may
take up to 60 seconds to save this data. Which method should the application use to obtain the object
from the RuntimeStore? (Choose one.)
A. get( long objectUID )
B. getInstance()
C. fetch( Class objectClass, long timeout )
D. waitFor( long objectUID )
E. put( long objectUID, Object anObject)
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer needs an application that will store temporary data and expose it to other BlackBerry device
applications. Which API will meet this requirement? (Choose one.)
A. RuntimeStore
B. PersistentStore
C. Location Based Services
D. Global Events
E. Connector
Answer: A

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NO.12 A BlackBerry device application collects information about several hundred books. The application
needs to sort books by title. Which combination of data structures should be used to manage the objects?
(Choose one.)
A.net.rim.device.api.util.SimpleSortingVector and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
B. java.util.Hashtable and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
C. net.rim.device.api.util.StringRepository and net.rim.device.api.util.StringPattern
D. java.util.TreeSet and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
E. java.util.Stack and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
Answer: A

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NO.13 The following application is set to auto-run at startup:
Which approach would most reliably solve the problem this application will encounter? (Choose one.)
A. It should callThread.sleep() for ten seconds before pushing the screen to verify that the
BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
B. Threads should be moved to their own standalone class so that they do not cause a security exception
C. Theint values in the MenuItem constructor should equal the y MenuString length to leave enough room
for the string
D. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
E. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
F. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
G. ThemakeMenu method of MainScreen must be overridden to use a menu
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.14 Which three of the following options are contained in a component pack? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Simulator
B. JavaDocs
C. API Library
D. Code signing keys
E. Unit Tests Framework
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Which two of the following operations should be avoided on the main event thread? (Choose two.)
A. Pushing a screen onto the display stack
B. Displaying a Dialog screen
C. Performing network communication
D. Calling the sleep method
E. Capturing of keyboard input
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 An application is needed that can store a list of sales data and customer information. The application
will also need the ability to search through this data and summarize it in an efficient manner. Which data
storage mechanism will assist in meeting all of these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SQLite
B. PersistentStore
C. RecordStore
D. RuntimeStore
E. FileConnection
Answer: D

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NO.17 Consider the code below:
What is a more efficient way of calculating the midpoint? (Choose one.)
A. int midpoint = (int) ((double) width) / 2.0;
B. int midpoint = Fixed32.div(width, 2);
C. int midpoint = (int) (width * 0.5f);
D. int midpoint = width >> 1;
E. int midpoint = width >> 2;
Answer: D

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NO.18 Consider the Counter class whose code is below:
Assuming that the go() method is always invoked serially, why is a different count printed at the end
almost every time that it is invoked? (Choose one.)
A. Therun() method is not declared "synchronized"
B. The _count variable is not declared "synchronized"
C. The ++ operator is not atomic
D. The _count variable overflows
E. The Counter class is not declared "synchronized"
Answer: C

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NO.19 Consider the code below:
How will the connection route be affected? (Choose one.)
A. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Infrastructure
B. The connection is routed over the cellular network
C. The connection is routed over the Wi-Fi
D. The connection is routed over the BlackBerry Internet Service -B
E. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: E

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NO.20 An application requires the creation of a custom field that can display animation. Which class and
method combination should be used to accomplish this task? (Choose one.)
A. Field.paint(Graphics graphics)
B. MainScreen.paint(Graphics graphics)
C. Field.subpaint(Graphics graphics)
D. Screen.draw(Graphics graphics)
E. GameCanvas.paint(Graphics graphics)
Answer: A

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Exam Name: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part I)
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NO.1 Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A. Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B. Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C. Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D. Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A. It loads data files into tables.
B. It can load files only on the server host.
C. It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D. It can load files both on the client and server host.
E. It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32 characters.
Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A. VARCHAR
B. CHAR
C. TEXT
D. Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Answer: B

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NO.4 Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database? If not,
why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = 'INFORMATION_SCHEMA'
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A. Yes.
B. No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C. No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D. No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A. It can dump data only on remote servers.
B. It can dump data only on the local server.
C. It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes why table locking is often not desirable compared to page or row
locking?
A. Table locks can have deadlocks.
B. Table locks create concurrency issues.
C. Table locks prevent other clients from making any changes to the table until released.
D. Table locks can cause data corruption issues if more than one client tries to make changes while
locked.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true?
A. InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B. MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C. InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D. MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E. InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
F. MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Answer: ACE

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NO.9 Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A. Create and Drop databases
B. Ping the server
C. Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D. Shutdown the server.
E. Create users.
F. Display replication server status.
Answer: ACEF

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NO.10 The ANALYZE TABLE command should be used...
A. When you need to find out why a query is taking a long time to execute.
B. To improve performance by updating index distribution statistics.
C. After large amounts of table data have changed.
D. To check a tables structure to see if it may have been damaged and needs repair.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A. It is used to cache row data in open tables
B. It holds file descriptors for open tables
C. The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D. Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E. There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F. Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open simultaneously
Answer: BEF

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NO.12 Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = 'world'
AND table_name = 'Country'
What would be the result of executing this query?
A. An error would be issued
B. A warning would be issued
C. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table Country
would be dropped from the world database
D. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the world
database would be unaffected.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
--with-charset=latin1 --with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the following
statements is/are true?
A. The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be installed on
disk.
B. The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by the
server.
C. The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened when the
server is started.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for MEMORY
tables?
A. HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
B. BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators
such as = and <=>
C. BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
D. HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators such
as = and <=>
Answer: AB

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NO.16 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by
it's own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true regarding the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It uses multiversioning to isolate transactions.
B. It is not possible for deadlocks to occur.
C. It does not isolate transactions.
D. It is possible for deadlocks to occur.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A. It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B. It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C. Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D. SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific command.
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true regarding table locks?
A. They can only be released by the client holding them.
B. They can be released by other connections than the client holding them.
C. They are implicitly released when the connection is closed.
D. They are not released when the connection is closed
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which of the following correctly defines dirty reads, non-repeatable reads and phantom row?
A. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
B. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of its uncommitted changes.
C. A non-repeatable read occurs when a transaction performs the same retreival twice but gets a different
result each time.
D. A non-repeatable read is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
E. A phantom is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
F. A phantom is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
Answer: ACE

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NO.21 Which of the following actions are performed during an RPM installation of the MySQL server
package?
A. Setup a mysql user
B. Setup a mysql group
C. Initialize the data directory
D. Setup passwords for all default accounts.
Answer: ABC

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NO.22 Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should...
A. generally never be run manually
B. be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C. be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D. be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be read during
query execution
E. be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
Answer: DE

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NO.23 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

MYSQL   005-002   005-002   005-002

NO.24 What are some properties of using LOCK TABLE?
A. Less work is required by the server to acquire and release locks.
B. It can only be used with the MyISAM storage engine.
C. Using LOCK TABLE sometimes decreases the amount disk reads and writes needed for a group of
statements.
D. All tables must be locked in a single statement.
E. It creates more disk activity.
Answer: ACD

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NO.25 Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by yourself?
A. They are highly optimized.
B. They are cross-platform.
C. Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely available
compilers.
D. They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E. They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Answer: ACE

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NO.26 Another user has issued the statement LOCK TABLE pets FOR WRITE
You can...
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. Update and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.27 mysqldump can be instructed to include commands to drop and recreate tables before trying to create
or load data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following are requirements for MyISAM binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
D. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
Answer: CD

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NO.29 Suppose you have a server that has been started with the --myisam-recover option. When does the
server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A. Each time the server is started.
B. Each time it encounters an error.
C. Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D. Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following steps should be taken to restore an InnoDB table to a consistent state without
having to shutdown the server?
A. Run the REPAIR TABLE command.
B. Dump the table with mysqldump, drop the table then re-create from the dump file.
C. Run the CHECK TABLE command.
D. Dump the table with mysqlhotcopy, drop the table then re-create with the backup file.
Answer: B

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NO.1 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: C

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NO.2 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world. City to it and preload the index.?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra
|
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment
|
| Name | char(35) | | | |
|
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | |
|
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
Which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause.
A temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the
SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and
processed later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and
why they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.12 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.13 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.14 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database.
You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: D

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NO.17 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.18 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN ...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL
SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.19 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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