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Exam Code: HP2-T19
Exam Name: HP HP BladeSystem Solutions [2010] HP2-T19
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which full-height device bays are in Zone 3 of a c7000 enclosure?
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 5 and 6
D. 7 and 8
Answer: C

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NO.2 When should a performance baseline be captured?
A. after the initial installation of the equipment, during normal daily operation
B. after the initial installation of the equipment, during peak operating conditions
C. before and after each step of the initial installation of the equipment
D. three times a day during the first week following the initial installation of the equipment
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which interconnect can be used with the Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capability of the new G7
Series of c-Class blades?
A. HP 1/10Gb-F Virtual Connect Ethernet
B. HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. HP ProCurve 6120G/XG interconnect
E. HP Virtual Connect FC Module
Answer: C

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NO.4 HOTSPOT
Click on the SB600c All-in-One Storage Blade in the graphic.
Answer:

NO.5 How does a c7000 enclosure retain air handling integrity when a server blade is removed?
A. The enclosure design uses blank panels to prevent air loss.
B. A blanking panel causes the air flow to reverse, allowing warmer air to escape.
C. The enclosure uses a self-closing door to prevent air loss.
D. The fans increase in revolutions per minute to increase air volume.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of c3000 enclosures that can be installed in a 42U rack?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which feature of the BL465c G7 allows the server to accommodate 16 DIMM slots and retain the
half-height form factor?
A. PCIe Gen 2 x8 mezzanine expansion slots
B. AMD SR5690/SP5100 chipset
C. Hot Plug Drive Drawer
D. Smart Array P410i Controller with 1GB FBWC
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which connectivity type is supported to access Systems Management Architecture for the Server
Hardware (SMASH) Command Line Protocol? (Select three.)
A. serial
B. ftp
C. rcp
D. telnet
E. ssl
F. ssh
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of SB1760c Tape Blades that can be installed in a c7000 blade
enclosure?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which HP BladeSystem component is used for power allocation and control for all blades and
interconnects?
A. Rack and Power Manager
B. Power Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Insight Display
Answer: C

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NO.11 What happens when you turn the enclosure UID to "On" on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure?
A. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
B. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
C. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
D. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
Answer: A

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NO.12 HOTSPOT
Click on the component that provides remote enclosure management in c-Class enclosures.
Answer:

NO.13 Which HP c-Class server blades take up two c3000 enclosure server bays? (Select two.)
A. BL860c
B. BL870c
C. BL685 G7
D. BL490 G6
E. BL2x220c G6
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 Which utilities can be used to scan for malware on a Windows server? (Choose two.)
A. Snort
B. Ad-Aware
C. Postfix
D. Microsoft Network Monitor
E. Spybot
Answer: B, E

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NO.15 What is needed to connect a Windows-based laptop to the c7000 or c3000 enclosure service port and
successfully communicate with the Onboard Administrator?
A. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a null modem cable
B. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a standard CAT5 patch cable
C. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a CAT5 crossover
cable
D. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a standard CAT5
patch cable
Answer: B

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
Place each server blade on its recommended application type.
Answer:

NO.17 Which HP blade comes with a license for Microsoft Cluster Server (MSCS)?
A. BL490c
B. BL870c
C. X3800sb
D. xw2x220c
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which processor type is used with the HP BL460c G6 Server Blade?
A. Dual-Core Intel Itanium Processor
B. Intel Xeon Processor
C. HP PA-RISC FSB, double data rate
D. AMD Opteron processor
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which feature is supported by the zx2 chipset in the Integrity BL860c?
A. hot spare and hot-plug of memory DIMMs
B. up to 512GB of memory (not fully buffered DIMMs)
C. memory DIMM error correction (chip sparing)
D. 512-bit, 800MHz (800 MT/s, 1600MHz data rate) memory bus
Answer: C

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NO.20 DRAG DROP
Place the preventive measure steps in the correct order.
Answer:

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Exam Code: HP0-S28
Exam Name: HP Intergrating & Managing HP Blade System Solutions in Enterprise HP0-S28
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 The customer wants to upgrade the memory in an existing BL460 G6. Using the HP DDR3 Memory
Configuration Tool, what is the easiest way to examine the existing memory configuration?
A. Use Insight Diagnostics on the involved blade.
B. Use memconfig and upload that information.
C. Use the HP System Management Homepage.
D. Upload the diag.log to the Memory Config Tool.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which software components must be installed before you can install HP Insight Control? (Select two.)
A. Application Server Console
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. Certificate Services
D. Internet Information Services
E. Email Services
Answer: BD

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NO.3 What must be done to keep previous user credentials when upgrading an HP Systems Insight Manager
Central Management Server (CMS) from version 3.0 to a current version?
A. Use the CMS Import Utility.
B. Use the Database Converter Tool.
C. Use the CMS Migration Tool.
D. Use the Database Upgrade Utility.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The customer has an environment of multiple web servers and two database servers all running on
Microsoft Windows 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. The requirement is to provide high availability for data
and efficient access to the web farm. Which solution meets the needs of this customer?
A. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for both the web servers and database servers
B. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a quorum disk model server
cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
C. A rotating standby cluster to support the web farm and a quorum disk model server cluster to provide
high availability for the database servers
D. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a Majority Node Set (MNS)
server cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to restart the Virtual Connect Manager after changes are made. Which CLI command should
you use to accomplish this?
A. reipl vcm
B. reload vcm
C. reboot vcm
D. reset vcm
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is correct regarding the subnet manager when designing an HP BladeSystem
solution using InfiniBand in a Windows environment?
A. A subnet manager has to be installed on a Linux host.
B. A subnet manager is automatically installed on the first InfiniBand module.
C. A subnet manager can run host-based and switch-based.
D. A subnet manager is optional.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP offering helps IT staff to use their systems more efficiently, resulting in a higher return on IT
investments?
A. Education Services
B. OpenView Storage Mirroring
C. Customer Self Repair
D. SupportPlus Services
Answer: A

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NO.8 You want to receive an email notification if a blade in a particular enclosure has a hardware failure.
Where do you navigate in HP SIM to accomplish this.?
A. Tasks > Alerts > Paging
B. User > Event Notification > Email
C. Options > Events > Automatic Event Handling
D. Options > User Notifications > Email Distributor
Answer: C

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NO.9 On what can Insight Control 6x Central Management Server (CMS) be installed? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer 4.5 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
B. Citrix XenServer 5.5 using Windows 2008 Standard R2 virtual machine
C. VMware ESX 3.5 Update 4 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
D. Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 using Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise 32-bit virtual machine
E. VMware ESX 4 using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP1 virtual machine
F. Microsoft Server 2008 R2 with Hyper-V using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP2 32-bit virtual machine
Answer: CF

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NO.10 When designing a BladeSystem hardware solution in order to prevent system failures, which questions
should you ask? (Select two.)
A. How much money or productivity is lost per minute of downtime?
B. What administrative efforts are required to fix problems?
C. When was the last failure?
D. What is the duration of the backup window?
E. What is the disk I/O throughput?
Answer: AB

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NO.11 When configuring Virtual Connect local accounts using CLI, which access privileges can be assigned?
(Select three.)
A. Domain
B. Server
C. User
D. Storage
E. Administrator
F. Operator
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which HP resource can help to plan and verify a consolidated storage infrastructure in combination
with an HP BladeSystem solution?
A. HP Replication Systems Manager
B. HP Storage Sizing Tool
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP SalesBuilder for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customers c7000 enclosure has 10 fans installed. The fan in bay 2 fails. There are no blades that are
powered on in device bays 5 through 8 or in device bays 13 through 16. Which statements are true in this
situation? (Select two.)
A. The fan subsystem is no longer redundant.
B. The fan subsystem is still redundant.
C. The blade in device bay 2 powers down.
D. The failed fan is marked failed.
E. The failed fan is marked as degraded.
F. The blade in device bay 1 powers down.
Answer: BD

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NO.14 What is the recommended resource to determine the power and cooling requirements of your
configuration?
A. HP BladeSystem Power Sizer
B. HP ProLiant Cooling Advisor
C. HP Thermal Logic
D. HP BladeSystem Spreadsheet
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about managing ESX hosts that are controlled by a second Virtual Center
server?
A. Each Virtual Center server needs an extra license for HP SIM.
B. Insight Control must be version 6.0 or greater.
C. The total number of virtual machines managed by a Virtual Center server must not exceed 200.
D. Virtual Center servers managed by one SIM server need to be on the same subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which method is recommended when deploying a Windows 2008 operating system on an Integrity
Server Blade?
A. Use make_net_recovery
B. Use HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
C. Use third-party imaging tools
D. Use EFI management options
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the Task button. Click on the Windows option that allows a system administrator to install HP
Insight Control on a Windows server that will be used to deploy Linux servers
Answer:

NO.18 Detecting a clustered host failure is accomplished by monitoring the heartbeats sent between the hosts.
You plan to test the heartbeat connection to cause a failover. Which networks are used in VMware for the
heartbeats? (Select two.)
A. On ESX hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
B. On ESXi hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
C. On ESX hosts, the service console network is used.
D. On ESXi hosts, the service console network is used.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 What are valid HP SIM report formats? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. RPT
C. RTF
D. CSV
E. DOC
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which HP Enterprise Virtual Array snapshot concept is shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Snapclone
B. Demand-allocated snapshot
C. Mirrorclone
D. Fully-allocated snapshot
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z18
Exam Name: HP Network Infrastructure AIS 2011 HP2-Z18
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer requires that each management user of HP switches has a unique user name and
password. How can you fulfill this requirement on HP E-Series switches?
A. Add each switch to the customer's Active Directory domain.
B. Use an external RADIUS server for authentication.
C. Enable 802.1X port authentication on each managed switch.
D. Install a Premium License on each managed switch.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You must determine whether routing has been enabled on an HP E 5406 zl switch. Which commands
provide this information? (Select two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show running-config
C. show vlans
D. show ip route
E. show ip
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 When Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled, which devices receive outbound LLDP advertisements from
an HP E-Series switch?
A. those with interfaces in VLAN 1
B. those that receive the switch's broadcasts
C. those that are directly connected to the switch
D. those in the LLDP multicast group
E. those not blocked by Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C, E

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NO.7 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 Ports 1-4 on an HP E3500 yl switch are tagged members of VLAN 44 and untagged members of VLAN
45. What is the effect of the following command?
E3500(config)# trunk 1-4 trk3 lacp
A. trk3 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 44 and an untagged member of VLAN 45.
B. trk3 will have no VLAN memberships until they are configured by an administrator.
C. trk3 becomes an untagged member of VLAN 1 and has no other VLAN memberships.
D. trk3 becomes an untagged member of VLAN 1 and a tagged member of VLAN 44.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have configured a dynamic LACP four-port trunk connecting two HP E-Series switches. How will
the switches share the load over the trunk?
A. The switch that receives the first packet in each conversation will balance the load by ensuring reply
packets use a different link.
B. Each switch will assign conversations to links independent of the other switch's selection.
C. The switches will exchange LACP BPDUs to negotiate a load-sharing algorithm.
D. The switches will dynamically calculate the path of least congestion for each conversation.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch displays dynamic information about traffic
transmitted and received on each port?
A. E3500 yl# show interface traffic
B. E3500 yl# show interface all
C. E3500 yl# show interface display
D. E3500 yl# show interface dynamic
Answer: C

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I
E5406(vlan-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You must enable Secure HTTP (HTTPS) to encrypt web-based management traffic on an HP E-Series
switch. The switch is at default settings. What must be installed or enabled to apply this solution?
A. web server
B. encryption accelerator
C. digital certificate
D. internal RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.13 Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1
Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You must determine whether routing has been enabled on an HP E 5406 zl switch. Which commands
provide this information? (Select two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show running-config
C. show vlans
D. show ip route
E. show ip
Answer: B, E

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NO.15 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J41
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions HP0-J41
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What are benefits of the P2000 G3 Storage Array compared to the G2 version? (Select two.)
A. 6Gb SAS architecture
B. 512 snapshot functionality as standard
C. drive spin-down capability
D. scalability to 149 LFF drives
E. scalability to 96 SFF
Answer: BC

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NO.2 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a benefit of the P2000 G3 FC array?
A. 8GB cache per controller
B. built-in Remote Snap capability allowing replication over FC
C. support for 128 snapshots included in base license
D. choice of 8Gb/s FC or combo FC/iSCSI controllers
Answer: D

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NO.7 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.9 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-D12
Exam Name: HP Planning and Designing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions HP0-D12
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 With Insight Control server deployment, by default, which identifiers are included by default as part
of the displayed name for a newly discovered server blade? (Select three.)
A. bay number
B. enclosure name
C. Onboard Administrator name
D. server asset tag
E. rack name
F. server serial number
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding virtual machine management with Insight Control?
A. Physical and virtual servers can be moved using a GUI-initiated drag and drop or a CLI.
B. Integration with HP SIM enables you to move virtual machines based on predictive hardware alerts.
C. A separate license is required to manage performance of Integrity virtual machines.
D. Virtual machines can be load balanced across a cluster automatically.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tools are included on the Insight Foundation Management DVD? (Select two.)
A. Firmware Maintenance
B. ProLiant Support Packs
C. SmartStart
D. Systems Insight Manager
E. System Management Homepage
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Which links within the Server Management area under the HP Insight Software tab in VMware vCenter
enable you to launch HP interfaces in new browsers? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Insight Dynamics for ProLiant
C. Insight Control
D. Integrated Lights-Out
E. Baseboard Management Controller
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Provisioning a new application infrastructure can often take weeks or months to complete. What is one
typical reason that the process can become so complicated?
A. Complying with government regulations causes lengthy delays.
B. Built-to-order servers, storage, and networking devices require long lead times.
C. Ordering the necessary components requires complex paperwork.
D. Lack of standardization hinders automation and governance.
Answer: D

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NO.6 DRAG DROP.
Click the Task button. Match the product package with the term that describes its position within the
modular HP Insight software portfolio.
Answer:

NO.7 Which statement is true about the server migration functionality of Insight Control?
A. Virtual machines for V2P migrations must reside on a VMware host.
B. Virtual machines for V2V migrations require a separate license per virtual machine.
C. Source and target servers can be Integrity or ProLiant servers or virtual machines.
D. Physical server migration requires a Windows iSCSI Initiator.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statements are true regarding Insight Control virtual machine management? (Select two.)
A. It disables use of drag-and-drop functionality to relocate virtual machines.
B. Virtual machines can be purchased and delivered as "chunks" of capacity.
C. It proactively relocates virtual machines before hardware failures occur.
D. It enables the safe and orderly shutdown of VMware ESX hosts.
E. It includes expanded support for virtual storage replication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 At what point would a customer environment need to be split into two separate HP SIM managed
groups with two central management servers?
A. 50 physical servers
B. 50 virtual machines
C. 1,000 managed components including iLOs
D. 5,000 physical servers and virtual machines
Answer: D

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NO.10 How is Insight Control power management different from power management applications available
from major HP competitors?
A. It does not require p-state-capable hardware.
B. It supports legacy versions of HP-UX.
C. It displays monetary power management savings.
D. It enables you to power servers on and off remotely.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which functionality is provided by Insight Control server migration?
A. It supports migrations to third-party x86 servers running a supported operating system.
B. It uses a Migration Wizard to upgrade to an Integrity or ProLiant server blade target.
C. It automates migration from legacy servers to virtual servers.
D. It manages the process of deploying a server from bare metal.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are two advantages of installing HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter Server? (Select two.)
A. provides an in-context launch of HP SIM
B. the ability to reboot host servers in different clusters
C. additional tabs for Insight Control and Insight Dynamics information related to VMware vCenter
D. access to view health and status information from iLOs and the Onboard Administrator
E. direct links to open Capacity Advisor reports
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which benefit is provided by Insight Control for Linux 6?
A. Virtual Media support on iLO-based servers without PXE and DHCP
B. scaling enhancements for enterprise data center operation with more than 5,000 physical nodes
C. deployment support for a Windows-based ProLiant central management server (CMS)
D. virtual machine management support on community-supported Linux distributions, including Debian
and Ubuntu
Answer: A

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NO.14 How is Insight Control licensed for ProLiant servers?
A. per core
B. per server
C. per migration
D. per virtual machine host
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your customer is concerned about power service interruptions but is unable to invest in the power
infrastructure at this time. Which questions should you ask your customer to consider? (Select two.)
A. How can load be reduced?
B. How can capacity be reclaimed?
C. How can failover clusters be implemented?
D. How can peak workloads be balanced more effectively?
E. How can redundancy be extended throughout the data center?
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Industry analysts report that businesses are scaling back the research and development efforts that
lead to innovation. What are two reasons cited as the cause of this trend? (Select two.)
A. aversion to risks while marketing new technology
B. cost of lost time, effort, and opportunity
C. lack of trained personnel
D. unpredictable business cycles
E. limited access to capital investors
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
The component technologies of which aspect of the HP Converged Infrastructure are illustrated in the
exhibit?
A. Infrastructure Operating Environment
B. FlexFabric
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. virtual resource pools
Answer: C

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NO.18 What does the Matrix Starter Kit include that the Matrix Expansion Kit does not.?
A. BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with fully redundant power supplies, fans, and Onboard
Administrator
B. HP 10000 G2 series rack (and rack and power options)
C. redundant Virtual Connect Flex-10 Ethernet and 8Gb Fibre Channel interconnects
D. Insight Dynamics, Insight Control, and VCEM
Answer: B

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NO.19 Your customer is not fully ready for BladeSystem Matrix, but is interested in unified management of
their physical and virtual environments. Which products should you recommend for this customer instead
of Matrix?
A. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
B. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Manager
D. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Machine Management
Answer: B

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NO.20 With Insight Control, you can generate a report that enables you to determine the overall
performance status of a system. Which three values should you reference on this report for this
information? (Select three.)
A. Accessible Duration of Server
B. Average CPU Utilization
C. Inaccessible Duration of Server
D. %Major
E. %Minor
F. %Normal
Answer: D,E,F

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Exam Code: HP0-M37
Exam Name: HP HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for UNIX HP0-M37
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which shell must be installed on the HP-UX system to perform an HP Data Protector Software 6.1
installation?
A. Korn Shell
B. C-Shell
C. Bourne Shell
D. Bash Shell
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can you change from tape drive licensing to capacity-based licensing?
A. Set the appropriate value in theomnirc file.
B. Disk-based storage is automatically detected.
C. Configure the global options file accordingly.
D. Select the Virtual Tape Library option inside the GUI.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which HP Data Protector Software command is used to format a tape?
A. omnifmt
B. omniinit
C. omniformat
D. omniminit
Answer: D

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NO.4 After installing an HP Data Protector Software environment, you cannot connect to the HP-UX Cell
Manager. Which command do you use to verify that the services are running?
A. omnitrig -check
B. ps -ef | grep dataprotector
C. cat /etc/services |grep omni
D. omnisv -status
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can you install HP Data Protector Software on a different disk location on UNIX systems?
A. Set the installation destination.
B. Edit the install.cfg file before installation.
C. Create symbolic links before installing HP Data Protector Software.
D. Move HP Data Protector Software after the installation.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y36
Exam Name: HP Deploying HP Enterprise Networks HP0-Y36
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which technology in an MPLS L2VPN can provide ordered delivery of Ethernet frames?
A. TCP-based L2VPN
B. Control Word
C. Ethernet raw access circuit
D. VLAN pseudowire class
E. MPLS EXP bits
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected. The address blocks chosen by the customers for
each site are:
The provider has established only four Multi-Protocol BGP peers as shown in the exhibit. PE-4 has no
customer connections. Neither MPLS L3VPN is functional. Which configuration steps are required if this
topology is to be operational for both customers.? (Select two.)
A. Create VPN instances Customer A and Customer B on PE-4.
B. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the bgp l3vpn-family.
C. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the ipv4-family vpnv4.
D. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the ipv4-family vpn-instance Cust-A and vpn-instance
Customer B.
E. Configure PE-4 as a bgp route-reflector.
F. Configure MBGP peers for P-10, P-20, and P-30.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Router-1 and Router-2 are BGP peers. Router-2 and Router-3 are BGP peers. However, Router-3 has not
learned the 16.0.0.0/8 BGP route. How can you resolve this issue? (Select two.)
A. Enable IGP synchronization on all routers.
B. Prepend AS1 to the 16.0.0.0/8 route on Router-1.
C. Enable BGP peering between Router-1 and Router-3.
D. Adjust the local preference of 16.0.0.0/8 on Router-1.
E. Configure Router-2 as a route reflector and Router-1 and Router-3 as clients.
F. Establish a physical link between Router-1 and Router-3.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 What can be included in BGP or multi-protocol BGP Network Layer Reachability Information (NLRI)?
(Select three.)
A. AS 65001
B. 10.0.0.0 /9
C. MED
D. Remote LDP Session
E. BGP ORF
F. VPN Target
G. VPLS Label Block
H. 6500:301:192.168.0.0 /16
Answer: B,G,H

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NO.5 In the configuration of a Martini version L2VPN on two PE routers, which parameter must be identical?
A. S-VID
B. PW-ID
C. VLAN-ID
D. Service Instance number
E. VPN-Target
F. Remote LDP Peer IP address
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which characteristics of a Circuit Cross Connect (CCC) L2VPN distinguish it from the Martini or
Kompella versions? (Select two.)
A. It requires a stack of three MPLS labels.
B. It includes exactly two endpoints of the VPN.
C. It can operate with fewer than two MPLS labels.
D. It does not require any Label signaling.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected. The address blocks chosen by the customers for
each site are:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A Site 1 successfully pings Customer A Site 2. This ICMP echo request is
captured on the Ethernet segment between routers P-10 and P-20. What is found on this packet capture?
(Select two.)
A. MPLS VPN label
B. VPN target
C. MPLS outer label corresponding to the LSR-ID of P-20
D. MPLS outer label corresponding to FEC 16.0.0.2
E. route distinguisher
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services offers multiple types of MPLS-based VPNs to its customers. Provider Edge
router PE-1 directly connects to the following three customers:
What is the minimum number of LDP peers established on Router PE-1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which parameters must be configured on two PE routers to provision an Ethernet L2VPN in Martini
mode? (Select four.)
A. PW-ID
B. LDP Remote Peer
C. VPN Instance
D. Service Instance
E. S-VID
F. L2VPN Address Family
G. Route Distinguisher
H. IP Binding
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.10 Which BGP attributes must be present in a BGP routing update? (Select three.)
A. community
B. MED
C. origin type
D. local preference
E. AS path
F. next hop
Answer: C,E,F

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Exam Code: HP2-B61
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Technical HP2-B61
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure.?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and imaging
devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.5 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Exam Code: HP2-B70
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals HP2-B70
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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NO.2 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.5 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E42
Exam Name: HP HP Visual Collaboration Technical HP2-E42
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Before deploying the H.323 Gateway, what must you do first?
A. Add a Gateway account using the Admin page on the Portal.
B. Add a Gateway component using the Super account on the Portal.
C. Add a Gateway license using the Super account on the Portal.
D. Add a Gateway component using the Admin account on the Portal.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statements are true about the Management Portal? (Select two.)
A. It administers all devices and user accounts.
B. It is the primary Media Router and hosts the layer routing, databases and administration applications.
C. It provides up to 100 ports for connections and can be expanded as necessary.
D. It provides web proxy functionality, enabling web browsers usage for general web access.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which function does the HPVC Router perform?
A. system administration and component management
B. efficient transport of A/V streams
C. trans-coding to legacy systems
D. phone bridging to the corporate telephone system
Answer: C

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NO.4 From the Database Maintenance tab, you are unable to do what?
A. back up and restore the database
B. upload a previously saved copy of the database
C. upgrade the database
D. delete the current database
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: D

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NO.6 What should you do when you cannot resolve an issue?
A. Attempt to format and recover the user s operating system.
B. Generate a Diagnostics report (zip file) and forward to the next level of support analyst.
C. Attempt to un-install and re-install the software.
D. Attempt to replace suspected faulty hardware.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What do network settings in the Desktop configuration determine?
A. which servers, ports and proxies the Router will use when connecting to meetings
B. which servers, ports and proxies the Gateway will use when connecting to meetings
C. which servers, ports and proxies the Desktop will use when connecting to meetings
D. which bandwidth the servers, ports and proxies will use when connecting to meetings
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Visual Collaboration product can deliver HD720p60/1080p30?
A. Visual Collaboration Desktop
B. Visual Collaboration Room 220
C. Visual Collaboration Portal and Gateway
D. Visual Collaboration Room 100
Answer: C

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NO.9 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page.?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.10 For the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration, where should you make network changes?
A. from the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration page
B. directly on the Portal server from the shell menu
C. from the Portal Management page
D. from the Visual Collaboration Management admin panel
Answer: B

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