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Exam Code: A2040-409
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development A
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Exam Code: C2090-304
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere QualityStage v9.1 Solution Developer
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Exam Code: C2180-276
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development
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NO.1 In order to accomplish Word Investigation in a single QualityStage job, how many investigate
stages would be required for the following fields:
PREFIX, FIRST_NAME, LAST_NAME. SUFFIX. ADDRESSJI. ADDRESS_2, ADDRESS_3, CITY , STATE.
andZIPCODE?
A. Ten.
B. Five.
C. Three.
D. Seven.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two elements are part of a lookup table in Standardization Rules Designer?
A. Input Value
B. Returned Value
C. Exception Value
D. Unhandled Token
E. Classification Token
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Once changes are introduced in a Rules Set, which option confirms the new rules set works
properly with your data?
A. Run the Rules Tester.
B. Have users check manually.
C. Check the Unhandled tokens.
D. Run the job again and confirm results.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Customer data is being processed in a single file. Among the fields present for matching are
national identity number and birth date, both of which are inconsistently populated.
Which match type should be used to match this data?
A. One-source Ranged
B. One-source Cognitive
C. One-source Transitive
D. One-source Dependent
Answer: A

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NO.5 What two rule groups are needed for rule sets?
A. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to split a domain.
B. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records after all other actions.
C. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records before all other actions.
D. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records as they read a lookup table.
E. A rule group for rules that you want to apply copies of records before all other actions.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What will improve classifications if there are a large amount of "@" and "?" symbols in a
standardization pattern report?
A. Word with Advanced options.
B. Word with special symbol processing options.
C. Character Discrete on all unhandled patterns.
D. Character Concatenate on selected columns.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What rule file parses data to the output file?
A. PAT
B. CLS
C. DCT
D. PRS
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement describe the benefits of parsing data?
A. Optimized database loading.
B. Application of phonetic codings.
C. Access to individual data tokens.
D. Pre-processing of country specific data.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P2090-008
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Exam Code: C2180-319
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Developer Tools V8.5 with Liberty Profile
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NO.1 When binding an object to JNDI, it can be relative to which of the following context roots?
A. Application root
B. Server root
C. J2EE module root
D. Cell persistent root
E. Node persistent root
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 What must be included in a SOAP fault message when an error occurs due to a value in the
message Body element?
A. A detail element
B. A Body fault code
C. An application-specific fault code
D. A fault string element with a value of "Body"
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer is using the Web container programming model as per JSR109. Which statement
regarding the Service Implementation Bean is true?
A. The class can be final
B. The class must define finalize() method
C. The class must have a default public constructor
D. The class can save client specific state across method calls using instance variables
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer using WebSphere Application Server Developer Tools wants to create a
webproject that will contain servlets and JSP files. The developer opens the New Web Projectwizard
using File > New > Web Project menu item.
What should the developer do in the New Web Projectwizard to accomplish this?
A. Select the Web 2.0 Project template.
B. Select the Simple Project template, and select Java EE in the Programming Modelsection.
C. Select the Simple Project template, and select Client-side only in the ProgrammingModel section.
D. Select the Simple Project template, and add theServletsandJSPfacets using theChange Features
button.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company is planning to deploy a key business function implemented as a JAX-WS Web
service. The Web service will be consumed by IBMWebSphere Application Server V7.0 and
Microsoft .NET clients. Currently, theWeb services is secured by WS-Security. What is the BEST way
to communicate policy to the consumers?
A. Export the Policy Set and publish the Policy Set on a web site for download
B. Enable the provider to export WS-Security Policy annotated WSDL via HTTP GET
C. Enable the provider to export WS-Security Policy annotated WSDL via WS-Policy Exchange
D. Enable the provider to export WS-Security Policy annotated WSDL via WS-Metadata Exchange
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following standards does the WS-Organization recommend for Web services
according to WS-I Basic Profile (BP)1.1?
A. WSDL 1.1, SOAP 1.1
B. WSDL 1.1, SOAP 1.1, MTOM
C. WSDL 1.1, SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2
D. WSDL 1.1, SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, MTOM
E. WSDL 1.1, SOAP 1.1, SOAP with Attachments
Answer: A

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NO.7 Select the scenario where the specification WS-Make Connection should be used.
A. To return responses back on a separate connection in arequest and response flow. Forexample,
enabling WS-Addressing to specify a new address to deliver a response.
B. To establish a connection for out-of-band communication with 3rd endpoint. For example, in
using WS-Secure Conversation with another business endpoint, a token can be obtained from a 3rd
party provider.
C. To tunnel through a firewall and establish a back channel for messages to be sent to a previously
un-addressable endpoint. For example, with WS-ReliableMessagingreestablishing a connection
through a firewall for acknowledgements.
D. To create a separate connection to an endpoint to gain metadata about an endpoint prior to the
initial request. For example, creating a connection to a separate endpoint to retrieve WSPolicy
information about how to establish connectivity to a web services endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A developer has a Web service-enabled EnterpriseJavaBean Java archive (JAR) module within
an EAR file. Which of the following command line tools will add one or more router modules to the
EAR file?
A. Wsadmin
B. Wsdeploy
C. Ejbdeploy
D. Endptenabler
Answer: D

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Exam Name: HCNP-SSAM(SAN Storage Advanced Management)
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Exam Code: H12-221
Exam Name: HCNP-R&S-IERN (Huawei Certified Network Professional-Implementing Enterprise Routing Network)
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NO.1 Snapshot of the storage array, LUN copy and remote replication, the following statement is
correct. (Choose two)
A. You can do both on a LUN snapshot and replication do
B. A remote copy of the source LUN can be used as another remote replication target LUN
C. A remote copy can be used as another source LUN LUN LUN copy source
D. Cannotdo both on a LUN snapshot and do remote replication
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 ISM integrated storage management software for management of the storage array uses
in-band management.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Storage system configuration (DB) class of problems can usually be prevented by routine
maintenance, which can issue the following measures after the system cannot be restored DB
exception occurs prevention? (Choose two)
A. After completing the system configuration,we recommend a backup DB, to prepare for the
resumption of the system configuration anomalies
B. Safe hard drive failure timely treatment recommendations
C. After the lapse in time RAID group
D. Log preservation and archiving
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 For common maintenance tool storage array, the error is described below.
A. Information gathering tool with a graphical interface operation,cross- operating
system,multilanguage switching,free installation features
B. Upgrade Checker.a check items automatically determine and reduce risk, lower skill requirements
characteristics
C. Business management functions can be achieved visually displays the current connection status
topology
D. DHA Service management is a hard disk health data collection / performance data storage,
support for start and stop, set,export, return
Answer: C

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NO.5 Remote replication between storage arrays are based on file-level replication.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 If the LUN on the storage array to create a virtual snapshot of the data in case the source LUN
is not to remove, what methods can be used to recover the data? (Choose two)
A. Source LUN snapshot rollback operation
B. The snapshot of the source LUN LUN mapping to the host,the host side to recover
C. Source LUN snapshot activate operation activation
D. The snapshot source LUN mirroring operation
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 S5000 full amount LUN copy must interrupt the host for the S5000 source LUN data read and
write operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 For solaris systems, the following statement is correct about the STMS. (Choose three)
A. solaris10 system comes stms package,no additional installation
B. Will require the use of a command function is enabled stms restart the host port
C. stmsboot managing multi- path characteristics solaris management program
D. Ultrapath can be installed on solaris multipath software to support multi -pathing
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: HP2-N36
Exam Name: HP Vertica Solutions [2012]
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Exam Code: HP2-K37
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NO.1 What are characteristics of projections in Vertica? (Select three.)
A. A projection can contain data from one or more source tables.
B. A projection can contain data from only one source table.
C. A projection can contain a subset of rows from the source table.
D. Each projection contains all rows from the source table.
E. A projection can contain a subset of columns from the source table.
F. Each projection contains all columns from the source table.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.2 How does Vertica implement high availability in a clustered environment?
A. full replicas of fact tables and segmented dimension tables
B. full replicas of all data on all nodes
C. built-in redundancy of data
D. continuous mirroring of data
Answer: B

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NO.3 During Vertica installation, how do you install onto multiple nodes of a cluster?
A. You must install the application individually on each node
B. Run the installation script from the Console machine once per node.
C. Pass the lP address or node names as part of the -s argument, and it will install the application on
each node,
D. Pass the IP addresses or node names to spread and it will install the application on each node.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of Vertica's transaction model? (Select three.)
A. Transactions mean that undo logs are not needed.
B. Transactions are used to maintain partitions.
C. Transactions are only written upon an explicit commit being issued
D. Transactions are used for data recovery.
E. Transactions are used to delete data.
F. Transactions are used to maintain segmentation.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.5 What distinguishes table partitioning from projection segmentation?
A. If table data is partitioned, associated projections can only be replicated.
B. If table data is partitioned, the table cannot participate in a prejoin projection.
C. If table data is partitioned, associated projections cannot be segmented.
D. If table data is partitioned, associated projections can also be segmented.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the benefits of ordenng data in projection design? (Select two.)
A. It enables optimum encoding.
B. It enables partitioning of data.
C. It enables efficient sharing of data between similarly-ordered projections.
D. , It enables efficient application of query predicates.
E. It enables segmentation of data.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HH0-300
Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED EXPERT -REPLICATION SOLUTIONS ARCHITECT
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Exam Code: HH0-350
Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED SPECIALIST -NAS ARCHITECT
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NO.1 A customer notices poor performance with the ShadowImageS-Vols that reside on an
externalized HUS 150. They have not noticed any problems with internal ShadowImageS-Vols.
Which system option mode (SOM) and setting should you verify?
A. Verily that SOM 459 is off.
B. VerilythatSOM459ison.
C. VeritythatSOM489ison.
D. Verily that SOM 489 is off.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two ways to improve initial copy time for ShadowImageon a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Use SATA disks.
B. Distribute S-Vols across additional parity groups
C. Increase the copy pace.
D. Decrease the copy pace.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 A customer is implementing TrueCopy between their primary and secondary data centers. Due
to budget constraints the RCU has larger, slower disk drives than the MCU.
What is the risk associated with the design?
A. Primary volumes may suspend
B. Journal utilization may increase
C. Host response time may increase
D. Back-end director utilization may increase
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has experienced a disaster and has failed over to their Hitachi Universal Replicator
copies at the secondary site. They have acquired new servers and storage for their production
facility and they are ready to return operations to the production facility as quickly as possible.
Which two fallback procedures apply? (Choose two.)
A. Order devices in the HORCM file from the lowest change rate to the highest change rate.
B. Replication pairs can be suspended to allow changed tracks to be managed using the bitmap.
C. Perform the initial copy with the -nocopy option to allow operations to resume immediately.
D. Initial copy is required from the recovery site back to the production site.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A large bank requires a no data loss copy of data over 250 km away, however they have
budget restrictions which prevent them from placing hosts at the in-region intermediate site and
therefore will always recover at the out-of-region remote location.
Which solution meets the requirement?
A. a three data center multi-target
B. a three data center cascade solution
C. a TrueCopy cascade off of a ShadowImagecopy
D. a Hitachi Universal Replicator cascade off of a ShadowImagecopy
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator (HUR) and does not have sufficient network
bandwidth. During a peak write workload, the customer overflows their HUR journals and
replication suspends in error.
What happens when the customer issues a resychronization?
A. HUR performs an initial copy.
B. HUR performs a differential copy.
C. HUR performs a no copy.
D. HUR performs an at-time split.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator to continuously replicate a database's data
and log volumes.
Which two statements describe what will happen? (Choose two.)
A. A database checkpoint will be created upon failover.
B. At recovery time, the database will reconcile logs and transactions.
C. In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D. In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which two workload metrics are used to calculate replication bandwidth requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. disk latency
B. read/write ratio
C. host response time
D. total MB/sec throughput
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: ECP-541
Exam Name: Ericsson Certified GGSN-MPG and GPG Professional
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NO.1 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ?(Choose two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which action is performed by router R4?
A. pop
B. swap
C. PHP
D. push
Answer: B

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NO.4 IPv6 addresses can be classified into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. hexcast
E. unicast
Answer: A,C,E

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10. Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the next hop (A, B, C, or D) for traffic arriving at R2 and destination
network 192.168.3.0?
A. Next Hop A
B. Next Hop B
C. Next Hop C
D. Next Hop D
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.7 Computer A with IP address 192.168.1.1 / 24 wants to send a packet to computer B with IP
address 192.168.2.1 / 24. Which statement is correct?
A. Computer A will send an ARP request to computer B
B. Computer A will encode the destination MAC address of computer B
C. Computer A will use its default gateway.
D. Computer A will send a network discovery request to computer B
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks?
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2170-647
Exam Name: IBM Intelligent Operations Center-Water & Transportation Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What configuration file(s) of the Application Toolkit contains the contextFactory properties,
such as host name and port number?
A. Organization.orgmodel
B. Log4j.properties
C. Mdm.properties
D. Mdm.properties and Log4j.properties
Answer: C

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NO.2 What can be customized in MDM Classic Matching Engine?
A. Searching & Matching party rules
B. Critical Data elements
C. Handling suspect rules
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statements are correct about Undo Collapse feature in the DSUI:
A. Undo Collapse relies on undoCollapseMultipeParties transaction in the back end
B. Undo Collapse will undo the previous collapse of multiple parties.
C. The original source parties remain inactivated and clones of all those original parties are created.
D. All the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Using probabilistic matching engine, Party A and Party B are identified as A1 suspect. There
are contract roles associated with Party A. There is no contract role associated with Party B. What
happens after collapsing Party A and Party B?
A. Both Party A and Party B are inactivated. A new Party C has been created. Contract roles
previously associated with Party A have beenreassigned to Party C automatically.
B. Party A is inactivated. Party B remains active. Contract roles previously associated with Party A
have been reassigned to Party B automatically.
C. Party A remains active. Party B is inactivated. Contract roles remain associated with Party A.
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Adaptive Services Interface allows MDM Server to support which standards without
customization?
A. NIEM
B. HL7
C. ACCORD
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: E

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Exam Code: C2020-011
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2
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Exam Code: A2040-958
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Notes Hybrid Config & Onboard Data Transfer
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Exam Code: M2140-664
Exam Name: IBM Rational Enterprise Modernization Sales Mastery Test v2
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NO.1 What are the core Rational products in the IBM Integrated Solution for System z Development
Accelerator?
A. Rational Requirements Composer, Rational Team Concert, Rational Quality Manager, Rational
Developer for System z.
B. DOORS, Rhapsody, Rational Team Concert, ISPF.
C. Rational Software Architect, ClearQuest, ClearCase, Rational Insight.
D. Rational Developer for z, Rational Team Concert, Rational Asset Analyzer, Rational Development
and Test Environment for System z.
Answer: D

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Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/software/rational/integrated/systemz-development/ (overview,
7 t 10th bulleted points)

NO.2 What Rational Products can be used together to provide a comprehensive Application
Portfolio Management solution?
A. Rational Team Concert, Rational Software Architect, and Rational Focal Point.
B. Rational Rhapsody, Rational Developer for z, and Rational Insight.
C. Rational Focal Point, Rational Asset Analyzer and Rational System Architect.
D. Rational Quality Manager, Rational Team Concert, and Rational Requirements Composer.
Answer: C

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Reference: http://www-142.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/category/SWY20 (see all products
application portfolio management)

NO.3 Clients can improve current applications by taking advantage of new architectures and
technologies. What other key IT resource can be leveraged as part of an enterprise modernization
project?
A. Reviewing challenges against client objectives to generate a list of best practices.
B. The process that helps business leaders identify industry trends.
C. The domain and systems knowledge of long time IT professionals.
D. Composite analysis testing and runtime analysis testing.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Jazz technology platform and tools can be used on projects that span different platforms
and different languages. It can be used to unify development organizations through
_______________.
A. a flexible application foundation framework
B. an integrated network infrastructure
C. a certified professional enterprise roadmap
D. a common team infrastructure and common developer toolset
Answer: A

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Reference: https://jazz.net/products/jazz-foundation/ (Collaboration and integration across the
entire application lifecycle, 5th bulleted point)

NO.5 What is one of the most common business reasons we hear from Power and System z
customers for starting Enterprise Modernization projects?
A. The need to transform IT from a cost to a value center.
B. Plan to begin developing complex systems on intelligent devices.
C. To ensure regulatory compliance through automated audit trails.
D. The need to manage and monitor their product portfolio as investments.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-189
Exam Name: Blueworks Live; IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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Exam Code: P2050-006
Exam Name: IBM Optimization Supply Chain Mgmt Technical
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NO.1 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.4 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
should the BPM analyst use to map the activities needed for the review of the "hiring" request in
Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.8 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-279
Exam Name: IBM Worklight V6.0, Mobile System Administration
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NO.1 What function is invoked when the Worklight framework initialization finishes?
A. wlInit()
B. wlInitFinished()
C. wlCommonInit()
D. wlStart()
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the server-side configuration requirements to enable collection of analytics data for
reporting?
A. Configuration of parameters in the worklight.properties file to enable raw data collection and
database connectivity.
B. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-server.xml file to enable raw data collection and
database connectivity.
C. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-reports.properties file to enable raw data collection
and JNDI database connectivityparameters in the resources.xml file.
D. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-server.properties file to enable raw data collection
and JDBC database connectivityparameters in the resources.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Worklight mobile application uses a native page to display a real-time graph of the price of a
stock symbol. The native page is invoked from a web page using the WL.NativePage.show() method
and requires a parameter that contains the value of the stock symbol to display. To pass the value of
"IBM" as a parameter to the native page using the parm variable, how should the variable be
initialized before passing it to the method?
A. var parm = "IBM";
B. var parm = ["IBM"];
C. var parm = {symbol: "IBM"};
D. var parm = ["symbol", "IBM"];
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer is invoking WL.Client.invokeProcedure(invocationData, options), using the
options object and callback functions that are shown below.
Which two statements describe the outcome of this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The invocationContext will be returned to the success and failure handlers.
B. The function failure will be invoked on client-side errors, however, not invoked on server-side
errors.
C. The data returned by the invoked procedure is saved on response.invocationResult in the case of
a successful call.
D. The data returned by the invoked procedure is saved on response.invocationContext in the case
of a successful call.
E. The data returned by the invoked procedure is saved on response.invocationResult in the case of
an unsuccessful call.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A developer is using a Worklight Studio installation that is configured with the Android 2.2
SDK and the corresponding Google USB driver. The developer has connected an Android
device to the machine via a USB cable. The developer tries to run the application on the device but
does not see the device listed as a target. What can be a cause for this issue?
A. Worklight does not support testing on Android 2.2 devices.
B. Installed Google USB driver is deprecated and must be explicitly enabled.
C. Installed Google USB driver does not support the device connected to the machine.
D. The worklight.properties file of the application is not configured to allow USB connection.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Pick the login type that is not supported by Worklight.
A. onStartup
B. never
C. onAlarm
D. onDemand
Answer: C

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NO.7 HTTP adapters can be used to__________. (Choose three)
A. Work with RESTful services
B. Work with SOAP services
C. Work with JMS services
D. Issue GET and POST requests
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 What format of data can the HTTP adapter retrieve and automatically parse? (Choose three)
A. Swift
B. XML
C. JSON
D. Plain text
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: A2010-571
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine V7.5 Implementation
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Exam Code: A4040-122
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Sales Skills -v2
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NO.1 Where are attached document folders associated?
A. Documents application
B. any Single-Page application
C. System Configuration application
D. the application that allows attached documents
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is the Condition Expression Builder accessed?
A. select Condition Expression Builder from the Administration module menu
B. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application toolbar
C. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application details
view
D. select Condition Expression Builder from the Conditional Expression application Select
Action menu
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true related to applications and the Application Designer?
A. All modifications to applications must be performed with the Application Designer
B. The files necessary to display an application are stored In the MAXAPPFILES table in the
database.
C. The code of a control can be modified with the Application Designer when used in code
configuration
mode.
D. Every application has a presentation XML that contains the information required to build
the
application's user interface
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which property prints a stack trace for fetch results?
A. mxe.db.fetchStack
B. mxe.db.fetchResult
C. mxe.db.fetchStackLogLimit
D. mxe.db.fetchResultLogLimit
Answer: D

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NO.5 What happens when the Rolling Appender reaches the file size limit?
A. The current file is deleted and a new file is created
B. The current file is renamed and a new file is created.
C. The new log statements overwrite the older log on the same file.
D. The current file is moved into the /maximo/logfile/archive directory and a new file is
created
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement explains the relationship of an E-audit fitter to the Database
Configuration application?
A. Using the Database Configuration application allows the creation of E-audit filters for main
objects only.
B. The type of information that requires these E-audit filters can be refined by using the E-
audit filter on
the Audit section of the Object tab within the Database Configuration application.
C. Included in the Database Configuration application is an action item called Enable E-audit
Filter which
allows the selection of the appropriate auditing requirements for a given database object
D. E-Audit filters are created for database objects in the Audit application and enabled using
the E-audit
filter selection dialog on each database object within the Database Configuration application.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A PDF needs to be added to Tivoli process automation engine. Where can this be
done.?
A. Manage Files Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
B. Manage Library Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
C. Manage Folders Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
D. Manage Documents Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two modifications can be made to the user interface of a selected application
using the
Application Designer? (Choose two.)
A. add values to a domain
B. add a tab to an application
C. add an attribute to an object
D. move a field within an application
E. change the data type of an attribute
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: A2040-440
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal & Portal Products Fundamentals
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NO.1 IBM WebSphere Portal supports which three of the following portlet specifications? (Choose
three.)
A.IBM Portlet API
B.Generic Portlet 1.0
C.Portlet 2.0 (JSR 286)
D.Portlet 1.0 (JSR 168)
E.IBM Web Content Manager Portlet 1.0
F.IBM Web Experience Factory specification 1.5
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Virtual Member Manager (VMM) is configured to leverage an LDAP server's membership
attribute.The
LDAP server's membership attribute includes direct groups only. Access to IBM WebSphere Portal
resources has been assigned based on nested group membership. What configuration options
should be
changed or verified?
A.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "all".
B.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "nested".
C.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Enable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
D.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Disable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator creates a page and denies access to anonymous users. The friendly URL for
this page
is /wps/myportal/page1. J2EE authentication is enabled. Which default authentication level could
be
associated with this page such that users who selected "Remember me on this computer" when
logging in
previously will not be prompted for credentials when requesting /wps/myportal/page1?
A.Identified
B.Standard
C.Authorized
D.Authenticated
Answer: A

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5. What is one thing to check when troubleshooting friendly URLs?
A.If a web content viewer is not configured to broadcast links, links rendered by the viewer will
affect the
friendly URL for web content.
B.Support for friendly URLs for web content is only enabled when either of the configuration
properties
friendly.enabled or
friendly.pathinfo.enabled has a value of true in the portal Configuration Service.
C.It does not matter if the target page does not contain a web content viewer that is configured to
receive
links. The content item specified in the
friendly URL for web content will be displayed either way.
D.The portal page specified in the friendly URL for web content must contain a content mapping to
an
existing web content site area.If there is no
content mapping on the page, any web content viewers on the page display a warning message
about the
missing page context.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What special considerations exist for logging out users authenticated by an external security
manager
(ESM)?
A.whether and how to expire the ESM's cookies
B.what role mappings to assign the default login portlet
C.how to clear the authorization context in the ESM's session
D.how to bypass the trust association interceptor during the logout
Answer: A

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