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Exam Code: 250-401
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.0 with Notification Server)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to theAltiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 During installation of the Symantec Management Platform 7.0 (SMP), an administrator specifies an
account created for SMP to be used as the Application Identity. When the administrator tries to connect to
the console from their workstation they receive an Access Denied message.
Why is the administrator's access denied?
A. The account used to install is the only account in the Symantec Administrators Group.
B. The account used during installation has NOT been added to the Domain Administrators Group.
C. The system administrator is using an account that is not a member of the Domain Administrators
Group.
D. The console must be run from a terminal services session of the Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
What is the effect of setting the scoped option when building a report query?
A. The report results will be limited to the resources that the user has permissions to view.
B. The users will be unable to bring up the Resource Manager by right-clicking on a row in the report
results
C. The available data classes will be limited to those that the user has permissions to view.
D. The users will be unable to drill-down to lower levels when viewing the report results.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which permissions do new security roles have?
A. the same permissions as the Symantec Administrators role
B. the same permissions as the Symantec Guests role
C. the same permissions as the Symantec Supervisors role
D. none
Answer: D

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NO.8 The IT staff for a large corporation is distributed among its many physical sites. The Symantec
Management Platform administrator needs to ensure that the local IT staff for any given location only has
rights to manage computers at that location and not at any other location.
Which two items must the administrator create and assign the appropriate rights to? (Select two.)
A. filter
B. organizational group
C. site
D. organizational view
E. collection
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.10 An Administrator wants to customize the default Symantec Administrators security role for use as a new
template for future console administrators Upon selection, the options are grayed out and inaccessible.
Which action should the administrator take to modify these privileges?
A. break inheritance to parent roles
B. take ownership of the role
C. clone the role and modify the copy
D. use a different credential with more permissions
Answer: C

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NO.11 A manager is attempting to run a report that identifies users who have Microsoft Office and Adobe
software installed, but the report fails to run What is the first thing the administrator should do?
A. check the report for errors
B. check the manager's permissions
C. remove security from the report
D. clone and modify the report
Answer: B

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NO.12 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by promptingAltiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two ways that permissions are set within the Security Role Manager? (Select two.)
A. security role membership
B. NT rights assignment
C. inheritance
D. explicitly granted
E. domain membership
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers.
Which menu item should the administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and
stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.16 The IT Department has been experiencing frequent turnover requiring administrators to modify security
role membership on an individual user basis An administrator wants to take advantage of membership
assignments established when new users are created in the network environment and connect them to
security roles. Which resource can be used in the Membership tab to allow user assignments to be
managed independently of the Security Role Manager?
A. Active Directory Security groups
B. Active Directory organizational units
C. Altiris Security Users
D. Altiris Security Groups
Answer: A

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NO.17 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. by including appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B. by replacing filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secured data
classes C. by creating multiple organizational views and groups that contain appropriate subset of
resources
D. by granting permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
Answer: D

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NO.18 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations.
Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.19 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.20 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned the Daily Event report. What must the administrator change to create a
Weekly Event report?
A. edit the Query Parameters to show a week of data
B. edit thedateadd(day, -1 @cutoffdate) section
C. edit the Resolved Query to show a week of data
D. edit the views on the Views tab
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-270
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.5 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

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NO.7 How long will a failed restore job remain in an Incomplete state prior to being moved to a Done state?
A. one day
B. three days
C. seven days
D. until the administrator cancels the restore job
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.9 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

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NO.11 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator has created three BasicDisk storage units within the NetBackup Administration
Console (STU-A, STU-B, and STU-C). The administrator needs to create a backup policy that evenly
rotates use of each of these storage units during backup.
How can the policies or storage units be set up to accomplish this?
A. set up each of the policies to use "Any Available" storage unit
B. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Failover" option for storage unit selection
C. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Least recently selected storage unit" option
D. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Choose storage units based on order specified
above" option
Answer: C

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NO.13 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

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NO.16 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

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NO.17 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters.
What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware
upgrade occurred?
A. Media ID generation
B. Media ID display
C. media type mapping
D. barcode rules
Answer: A

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NO.18 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.19 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

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NO.20 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 250-314
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which two data categories are available through standard reports in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
(Select two.)
A. alerts
B. policy templates
C. jobs
D. accounts
E. catalogs
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the "Recovered Jobs" Error Handling rule? (Select two.)
A. It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.
B. It is enabled by default.
C. It is used to recover all failed jobs.
D. It retries the job based on the "Recovered Jobs" error handling rule settings.
E. It terminates the active job and sends an alert.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 How should an administrator determine why a job failed?
A. review catalogs
B. inspect the Job Monitor
C. review the job log
D. inspect policy history
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two notification delivery methods can receive job logs as part of the notification process? (Select
two.)
A. pager
B. printer
C. email
D. fax
E. Instant Messenger
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which two views are available in the Job Monitor in Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A. Job List
B. Calendar
C. System Summary
D. Alerts
E. System Detail
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is used to perform database maintenance tasks on the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 database?
A. VXGather.exe
B. DBUtility.exe
C. BEConfigure.exe
D. BEUtility.exe
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec data
directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of a temporary staging area in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A. uses a cache area to apply encryption to data during backup
B. allows individual items to be recovered from a tape-based image
C. allows database backups to be cataloged enabling granular recovery
D. uses available system RAM to process datadeduplication during backup
Answer: B

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NO.9 To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size
limitations, which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)
A. alert history
B. catalogs
C. install files
D. job history
E. backup-to-disk files
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option 'Write SCSI pass-through mode', which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010 to write
directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a
Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?
A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers
B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers
C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers
D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers
Answer: C

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NO.12 A restore job fails with access denied errors. What is the next step that should be taken?
A. start the Backup Exec Remote Agent on the appropriate machine
B. enable restore rights in Logon Account Management
C. check the restore job credentials for appropriate rights
D. change the logon account for the Backup Exec Remote Agent
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which utility can collect the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 log files?
A. VxGather.exe
B. VxCollect.exe
C. SGMon.exe
D. SymCollect.exe
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Restore Selections view displays a list of protected servers regardless of which media contains
the data?
A. View by Computer
B. View by Server
C. View by Resource
D. View Selection Details
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 An administrator needs to restore several different versions of an existing file. Which option should be
chosen?
A. Restore Redirection
B. Restore Versions
C. File Versioning
D. File Redirection
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which setting in Tools -> Options can be changed to affect how long job history and job logs are kept?
A. Job Status and Recovery
B. Log management
C. Database maintenance
D. Preferences
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central
Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 In the Job Monitor tab, when is the "Created On" column visible?
A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled
B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)
C. when the Date field is added to the View properties
D. when the backup job state is Running
Answer: B

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NO.20 How is publishing disabled for a remote server on which the Remote Agent for Windows Systems is
installed?
A. run Backup Exec Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
B. run the Remote Agent Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
C. run Backup Exec Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
D. run the Remote Agent Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ASC-093
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.2 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.6 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.9 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.10 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-132
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What happens if a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner is behind another internal messaging
gateway?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might quarantine all mail from the internal gateway MTA if
DKIM is disabled.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might identify the IP address of the internal gateway MTA as a
source of spam.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will trust all mail from the internal gateway MTA.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will grant the internal gateway MTA a Fastpass.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which prerequisite must be met to take advantage of the Connection Classification and Fastpass
features?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway must use a virtual IP address.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured with two network interfaces.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be the first SMTP hop into the network.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured in scanner-only mode.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A diagnostics package for a scanner-only appliance can be generated from the GUI in Symantec
Messaging Gateway 9.5.If the package is small (less than 5 MB), which transfer protocol type should be
used by the administrator to verify the diagnostics package before providing it to technical support for
analysis?
A.email to administrator
B.download to desktop
C.FTP
D.SCP
Answer: B

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NO.4 A message released from Spam Quarantine is delivered to the intended recipient.Under the default
configuration, where is a copy of the misidentified message also sent?
A.intended recipient's manager
B.Symantec Security Response
C.Administrator@localhost
D.Admin@localhost
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company uses multiple control centers.What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A.Configure the same seed value on each control center.
B.Configure different seed values on each control center.
C.Configure the same seed value on each scanner.
D.Configure different seed values on each scanner.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the default time period that a suspect virus can reside in the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.2 hours
B.4 hours
C.6 hours
D.8 hours
Answer: C

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NO.7 An employee reports that a message sent to a customer was rejected.The employee provides
sufficient information for the administrator to find the message using the Message Audit log.The employee
wants to know why that message was blocked.Which section of the Message Audit Log detail page would
provide this information?
A.Verdict
B.Message Header
C.Tracker
D.Destination
Answer: A

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NO.8 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?
A.Symantec 2950 series appliances
B.Symantec 3570 series appliances
C.Symantec 7100 series appliances
D.Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists?
(Select two.)
A.Add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains.
B.Check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group".
C.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions.
D.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions.
E.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions.
Answer: B, E

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NO.10 What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A.Dynamic Data Cache
B.Directory Data Service
C.Data Directory Tool
D.LDAP Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.11 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec Messaging
Gateway 9.5?
A.store backup on local server
B.store backup on a remote location using FTP
C.encrypt local backup
D.purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.12 Before performing a software update on a scanner-only appliance, which MTA operation/mode should
be chosen if there are messages in the queues?
A.Stop the MTA.
B.Accept and deliver messages normally.
C.Pause message scanning and delivery.
D.Do not accept incoming messages.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is running out of disk space due to storing extended logs.The
administrator is required to store extended log data for more than a year.Which action should the
administrator take?
A.Lower the maximum log storage limit.
B.Increase the Messaging Gateway server threads.
C.Configure remote logging.
D.Delete messages from the queue.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A.when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B.when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C.when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D.when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E.when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 An administrator recently investigated the debug logs for Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 and
resolved an issue.A few days later the administrator discovers that the disk storage is filling up
quickly.What is the likely cause?
A.Real-time update level is turned up.
B.Local log level is turned up.
C.Active user data is turned up.
D.Remote log level is turned up.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by
which two features? (Select two.)
A.rapid release definitions
B.real-time updates
C.DKIM signing
D.SMTP authentication
E.hourly quarantine expunging
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 How could an administrator filter email more aggressively by adjusting the suspected spam score?
A.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 99.
B.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 60.
C.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 24.
D.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 91.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Where are options for backup and restore of Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 located?
A.Administration -> Version
B.Administration -> Configuration
C.Administration -> Control Center
D.Administration -> Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.19 An administrator tests the default antivirus policies by sending a message with an encrypted
attachment.
When the administrator checks the recipient inbox, what appears?
A.The test email appears with a modified subject line.
B.A system-generated message appears concerning an unscannable attachment.
C.A pointer to the Suspect Virus Quarantine appears.
D.The email is missing due to deletion by the system.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which Directory Data Source function must be configured to enable end-user spam quarantine?
A.SMTP authentication
B.address resolution
C.recipient validation
D.authentication
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
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Total Q&A: 167 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.5 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.9 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.10 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.15 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-174
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 Technical Assessment )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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NO.9 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page athttps://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

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NO.14 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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NO.16 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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NO.17 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

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