2014年7月31日星期四

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Exam Code: C2180-605
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Exam Code: A2040-911
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NO.1 An integration developer is developing a mediation flow and wants to stop the execution of a path in
the flow. The developer has to choose between a Stop and a Fail mediation primitive. Which of the
following is the correct option to consider while making a choice between the two?
A. A Stop primitive would stop the execution, throw an exception and may rollback global
transactions if configured; a Fail primitive would stop the execution and consume the message silently.
B. A Stop primitive would stop the execution and consume the message silently; a Fail primitive would
stop the execution, throw an exception and may rollback global transactions if configured.
C. A Stop primitive would stop the execution, throw an exception and consume the message; a
Fail primitive would stop the execution and may return the message to the downstream primitive through
its output terminal if configured.
D. A Stop primitive would stop the execution and may return the message to the downstream primitive
through its output terminal if configured; a Fail primitive would stop the execution, throw an exception and
may return the message to the downstream primitive through its output terminal if configured.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A new version of a common business object currently defined in a shared library is required for a new
mediation module. Which of the following should be done to ensure that older modules are not
immediately affected by the change and both versions of the business object are available to all modules?
A. Create the new version of the business object using a different name in the shared library.
B. Create the new version of the business object using the same name in the new mediation module
without modifying the shared library or the other mediation modules.
C. Create the new version of the business object using a different name in the new mediation module
without modifying the shared library or the other mediation modules.
D. Move the old version of the common business object to each existing dependent mediation module,
then create the new version of the business object in the new mediation module.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An integration developer wants to make some of the properties of the mediation primitives configurable
at runtime. Which of the following properties can be promoted to be visible to be visible within the
Administrative Console (Integrated Solutions Console)?
A. 'Root' of Event Emitter
B. 'Handler' of Message Logger
C. 'Table name' of Database Lookup
D. 'Binding Type' of Endpoint Lookup
E. 'Invocation Style' of Service Invoke
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 An integration developer is implementing a custom mediation primitive. The primitive has 3 out
terminals configured, Terminal1, Terminal2, and Terminal3. In the custom code, the developer wants to
propagate the original service message object (smo) to Terminal2. How should the developer implement
this in the code?
A. out.Terminal2(smo);
B. Terminal2.fire(smo);
C. fire(smo,Terminal2);
D. fire.out(smo,Terminal2);
Answer: B

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NO.5 An integration developer is designing an XML map that combines the firstName and lastName
elements of the source into a single fullName element in the target. In addition, the fullName element
must be formatted with the lastName first, followed by a comma and then the firstName.
Which transform type would be the most appropriate for this situation?
A. Move
B. Concat
C. Append
D. Assign
Answer: B

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NO.6 The integration developer has an existing mediation flow that was developed using WebSphere
Integration Developer V6.2. The developer would like to take advantage of functionality in new mediation
primitives of WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0 to enhance the mediation flow design. What should
the integration developer do to migrate project artifacts from WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2 to
WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0? From WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2, export the
artifacts:
A. into a JAR file.Import the JAR file into the WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0, which will
automatically migrate the project.
B. as an EAR file.Import the EAR file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0, which will automatically
migrate the project.
C. into a Project Interchange (PI) file. Import the PI file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0. Then
use the migration wizard to complete the process.
D. into an Eclipse Product.Import the Eclipse file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0. Then use
the migration wizard to complete the process.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A PurchaseOrder business object and a SalesOrder business object inherit from an abstract Order
business object. Both PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder objects require an orderDate property.
However, PurchaseOrder requires an orderType property that is not required by SalesOrder. What is the
BEST way to model the objects?
A. Define theorderDate property in the abstract Order
Define the orderType property in PurchaseOrder
B. Define theorderDate property in the abstract Order
Define the orderType property in the abstract Order
C. Define theorderDate property in PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder
Define the orderType property in PurchaseOrder
D. Define theorderDate property in PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder
Define the orderType property in the abstract Order
Answer: A

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NO.8 An integration developer has been tasked to develop a mediation module that integrates a legacy J2EE
application deployed on a remote server. The legacy application is exposed through an EJB facade and
the integration developer decides to use an EJB import. What is the most suitable approach to configure it?
The integration developer should:
A. add the corresponding EJB client project to the module dependencies and select the EJB local
interface for the import.
B. import the corresponding EJB client project into the workspace and select the EJB remote interface for
the import.
C. create a WSDL interface with the same operations as the EJB interface, select it as the import interface
and add the EJB JNDI Name in the binding section.
D. use the external service wizard to point to the EJB through its IIOP URL and the wizard
automatically creates the interface and the business objects for the import.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is the IBM System Storage Easy Tier mode that is enabled for a storage pool with a single
tier of storage to collect usage statistics only for all the volumes in the pool?
A. Monitor
B. Easy tier
C. Automatic
D. Evaluation
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is considering the replication of data between two Storwize V7000 systems using
an
existing, shared inter- site link. The technical specialist has been requested to investigate whether
or not this proposal is viable.
To begin the assessment what information should the specialist request for this opportunity?
A. The Recovery Point Objective and the application(s)
B. The application(s) and the amount of data to be replicated
C. The capacity of the inter-site link and the distance between sites
D. The amount of peak change data to be replicated and the capacity of the inter-site link
Answer: D

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NO.3 Customer requirements show only iSCSI and CIFS access will be required for a Storwize V7000
Unified solution. How many Fibre Channel ports will be utilized on the control enclosures?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.4 Describe the key competitive advantage of IBM integrated Real-time Compression (RtC) over
EMC and HP compression technology.
A. Operates on active primary data
B. Achieves up to 40% better compression rates
C. Provides up to 200% performance improvement
D. Supports faster and more efficient data copies for online backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 During a demonstration, the technical specialist was asked to configure performance
monitoring
data collection for a Storwize V7000.
How should the technical specialist respond?
A. Basic performance monitoring is automatic, no configuration is necessary
B. Basic performance monitoring is only available through the mobile dashboard
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center is required to perform basic performance monitoring
D. Basic performance monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 and detailed performance
monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the Storwize V7000.,what is the Node Canister?
A. A group of 5 drives
B. The controller ERU
C. The power supply/fan ERU
D. Disk expansion interconnect ERU
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the preferred replication method that could achieve best application performance
with
reduced network requirements host performance that is independent of the replication, and RPO
higher (with default of 10 minutes)?
A. Metro Mirror
B. Global Mirror
C. Global Mirror with Change Volumes
D. SAN Volume Controller Split cluster
Answer: C

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NO.8 What statement is true regarding Snapshots in a Storwize V7000 Unified NFS environment?
A. Snapshots are space-efficient and writeable.
B. Snapshots use a dedicated/reserved Snapshot area.
C. Snapshots are space-efficient and use Copy-on-write.
D. Snapshots are space-efficient and use Redirect-on-write.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What administrator role is required to create an ITM Monitoring Profile?
A. user
B. super
C. senior
D. admin
Answer: C

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6. What command provides information to the configured Tivoli Business System Manager
CommonListener?
A. wdmcmd
B. wdmcollect
C. wdmheartbeat
D. wdmdiscovery
Answer: D

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7. A server administrator calls you one afternoon to inform you that he did not recieve an alert
from a monitor that should have caught a failed application service.
You remember distributing this particular Resource Model earlier in the morning.
You are unable to run a successful status check on the tmw2k engine from the Gateway.
Which two of the following selections will help in troubleshooting the failed Resource Model and
tmw2k engine? (Choose two.)
A. check status of MDist
B. check status of MDist 2
C. check status of endpoint
D. check status of resource model
E. remove the LCFNEW directory and execute 'wdmcmd'
Answer: B,C

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8. A customer has the ITM Web Health Console running in a UNIX environment.
The error message "AMW4805E An error occurred while creating the graph" is displayed when
generating Historical or Online Metric graphs.
What UNIX environment variable needs to be set to correct the problem?
A. LANG
B. PATH
C. SHELL
D. DISPLAY
Answer: D

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9. Which two statements are true about the wdmconfig command? (Choose two.)
A. The wdmconfig command is used to configure ITM resource models.
B. The wdmconfig command is used to query for information concerning the configuration of the
ITM gateway processes.
C. The wdmconfig command is used to query for information concerning the configuration of the
ITM endpoint processes.
D. The wdmconfig command is used to change the values of one or more configuration keys,
governing the operation of the ITM gateway processes.
E. The wdmconfig command is used to configure the values of one or more configuration keys,
governing the operation of the ITM endpoint processes.
Answer: B,D

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10. Which two tables are required to support MDist2? (Choose two.)
A. DIST_STATE
B. DIST_NODE_STATE
C. DIST_NODE_STATUS
D. DIST_STATE_STATUS
E. DIST_PROFILE_STATE
F. DIST_UNKNOWN_STATE
Answer: A,B

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11. Which two basic functions are provided by the Tivoli Framework? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. C2 security
C. NETBIOS routing
D. delegated administration
E. management by subscription
Answer: D,E

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12. On subsequent logins, which two events occur during an endpoint login, assuming the
endpoint can contact its assigned gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The endpoint reads its assigned endpoint gateway from the lcf.dat file.
B. The endpoint broadcasts its login using User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
C. The endpoint login request is received by all managed nodes in the TMR
D. The endpoint manager updates the endpoint gateway's endpoint list cache.
E. The assigned endpoint gateway checks its endpoint list cache for that endpoint.
Answer: A,E

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13. Which command allows multihome hosts to function in the Tivoli environment?
A. odadmin odlist
B. odadmin reexec all
C. odadmin set_iom_by_name
D. odadmin allow_dynamic_ipaddr TRUE
Answer: C

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14. What are the documented limitations for the number of supported endpoints within one
TMR?
A. 200
B. 2000
C. 20000
D. 200000
Answer: C

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15. Where must the Tivoli Java RDBMS Interface Module be installed?
A. all endpoints
B. any managed node configured as a RIM host
C. any machine where the MDist2 GUI is installed
D. any TMR server where Java applications access a database
Answer: C

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NO.2 The customer wants to upgrade Tivoli Distributed Monitoring (Advanced Edition) V4.1 to ITM
V5.1.1. What should they do?
A. upgrade first to ITM V5.1 and then to ITM V5.1.1
B. install the latest DM V4.1 patches and then upgrade to ITM V5.1.1
C. install the latest DM V4.1 patches then upgrade to ITM V5.1 and then to ITM V5.1.1
D. upgrade directly from Tivoli Distributed Monitoring (Advanced Edition) V4.1 to ITM V5.1.1
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has an existing Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 deployment.
Their environment includes machines running AT&T Unix.
Which statement is true?
A. ITM V5.1.1 supports these machines, so there are no upgrade issues.
B. The customer must set up a separate TMR to monitor the machines running Tivoli Distributed
Monitoring V3.7.
C. Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 and ITM V5.1.1 can coexist on the same TMR, but must be on
separate gateways.
D. Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 and ITM V5.1.1 can coexist on the same TMR, and they can
continue to monitor the machines with DM V3.7.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When using the GUI to create a Tivoli senior administrator that will be using the desktop on a
Windows NT managed node, which user name must be entered on the Create Administrator dialog?
A. senior
B. nobody
C. tmersrvd
D. any account name that is valid on that Windows NT managed node
Answer: D

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NO.5 The customer wants the capability to automatically recover from a specific event using an
automated action.
Where does the Tivoli Administrator define this recovery action?
A. endpoint
B. Profile Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Workbench
D. IBM Tivoli Health Console
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition'.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal
program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred
firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is
shutdown and restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will
automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware
contains major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase "/var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.5 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command
will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.6 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the
administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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NO.7 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a
system with 6 physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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NO.1 What trace class will show deadlock information?
A. Audit class 3.
B. Statistic class 3.
C. Accounting class 1.
D. Performance class 8.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of
faster insert
performance? (Choose two.)
A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What is a consideration when specifying DATA CAPTURE CHANGES?
A. Can be specified for capturing changes to an XML object.
B. To minimize logging, specify NOT LOGGED when DATA CAPTURE CHANGES is
specified.
C. REFRESH TABLE statement is not allowed with a table defined with DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES.
D. You cannot turn on DATA CAPTURE CHANGES if the table space is in advisory REORG-
pending.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In the CFRM policy, what is the purpose of the PREFLIST?
A. To identify the size of the structure.
B. To identify all the DB2 members in the group.
C. To identify the preferences for DB2 restart in the event of a disconnection.
D. To identify the preferences for structure rebuild/reallocation during a coupling facility
failure.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When converting a multiple table segmented table space to partition-by-growth table
spaces, which
statement is correct?
A. DSMAX may have to be increased.
B. Storage requirements for EDMDBDC will decrease.
C. Storage requirements for some applications will increase.
D. The dynamic statement cache should be increased to handle the additional SQL
statements.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The available window to reorganize table spaces is being reduced. What data can
provide information
to allow for a priority list of candidate table spaces for reorganization based on recent activity
with no
recent RUNSTATS execution?
A. SYSIBM.SYSCOPY
B. SYSIBM.SYSTABLES
C. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXES
D. SYSIBM.SYSTABLESPACESTATS
Answer: D

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NO.7 What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?
A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR
Answer: C

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NO.8 When DB2 detects at runtime requiring a large amount of data to be read, which
prefetch method is
used more often?
A. List prefetch
B. Dynamic prefetch
C. Sequential prefetch
D. Skip sequential prefetch
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2020-622
Exam Name: IBM Risk Analytics for Insurance and Pensions Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which type of global insurance company must comply with the regulations introduced by
Solvency II?
A. European-based Life insurer with GPW of less than 5M Euros
B. A Tokyo-based multi-line insurer with an open market value of more than 100M Euros
C. A London-based multi-line insurer with GPW of 10M Euros
D. A North American based Property & Casualty Insurer with GPW of S10M
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.2 Which of these C-level executives would be a key influencer for the selection of a Solvency II
Compliance Solution?
A. Senior Vice President of Global Sales
B. Chief Marketing Officer
C. Vice President of European Sales
D. Chief Investment Officer
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.3 Which is the appropriate qualifying question for a prospect for the IBM Algorithmics Actuarial
& Financial Modeler?
A. Are you struggling to adapt your current actuarial models to address new business requirements?
B. Are you building an internal model for Economic Capital or Solvency II?
C. What are your plans for consolidating input data from various systems'?
D. What methodology do you use to aggregate market and non-market risk?
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Algorithmics Actuarial and Financial Modeling provides a range of business benefits, including:
*Advanced actuarial modeling to undertake the full spectrum of global actuarial
calculations, and address the challenges of 'real-world', principles-based modeling.
Supports regulatory compliance including Solvency II and other regimes.
*Scalable modeling and production infrastructure enables full transparency, audit, workflow
and control over the modeling process.
*Critical decision support enables more effective, risk-informed business strategies.
*Helps reduce actuarial costs and optimize ease of use with swift implementation and processing
speeds.
Note:
*Supports regulatory compliance
Enhances confidence with a secure modeling and production environment that supports
compliance across a range of risk-based regulatory and other supervisory regimes,
including Solvency II and IFRS.

NO.4 What is the product at the core of the IBM Algorithmics Economic Capital and Solvency II:
Compliance and Reporting Edition?
A. Netteza
B. IBM Algorithmics Actuarial & Financial Modeler
C. Collateral Management
D. Open Pages for Insurance Risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Compliance and Reporting Edition *Offers a pre-configured, robust and rapid implementation
solution for Solvency II that focuses on a Standard Formula approach. Provides you with the
capabilities of Algo Financial Modeler, a powerful actuarial and financial modeling engine, combined
with a workflow, governance and reporting tool to deliver an end-to-end solution for Solvency II
*Algo Financial Modeler can either calculate liability cashflows or act as an aggregation layer to
consolidate cashflows generated by existing actuarial systems. *Offers the flexibility to scale up to
the more advanced feature set of the Enterprise Edition to meet the challenges of changing
business requirements and growth.

NO.5 Which one of the following is the key legislative driver for insurance companies and pension
funds to improve their risk management processes?
A. Basle II
B. Basle III
C. Solvency II
D. Dodd Frank
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Dodd-Frank:made changes in the American financial regulatory environment
that affect all federal financial regulatory agencies and almost every part of the nation's financial
services industry.
Incorrect:
Not A:Basel II, initially published in June 2004, was intended to create an international
standard for banking regulators to control how much capital banks need to put aside to
guard against the types of financial and operational risks banks (and the whole economy) face.
Not B:Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory standard on
bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk.
Not C: The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation.

NO.6 Which risk management technique is currently the main motivation for pension funds
toacquirenew risk management systems?
A. Operational Risk
B. Liability hedging strategy
C. Corporate counter party risk
D. Sovereign debt risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Pension funds currently face a multitude of challenges and risks. We believe liability hedging (also
known as liability matching) is an effective way to help de-risk a fund.

2014年7月30日星期三

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NO.1 Which features would lead you to position an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 as a replacement for an
existing HP8100 Enterprise Virtual Array? (Select two.)
A. thin provisioning
B. seamless data migration
C. compatible replication protocol
D. faster disk spindle speeds
E. similar feature set
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 An industry-leading insurance company in the UK has decided to build a redundant vSphere
5.1 infrastructurecluster with an HP BladeSystem and HP 3PAR StoreServ storage platform.
As their consultant, you proposeredundant HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures, FlexFabric
Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiantBL660c Gen8 Servers, with two dual port Flex-Fabric
LOMs in a vSphere ESX5.1 HA cluster.
The supportdepartment needs to decrease the time of infrastructure management.
Which HP product provides hardware-level management for their HP server and storage solution?
A. HP System Insight Manager
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 A consultant develops a storage concept for an SMB customer. To prepare the CxO
presentation, theconsultant must identify business and technical challenges. Which challenges
should be presented during ameeting with the CEO? (Select two.)
A. Data is not protected at the sufficient level.
B. Rack space is not used efficiently.
C. Cost of information is not defined.
D. Operational expenditures (OPEX) nave to be reduced.
E. Server provisioning takes too much time.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 A medium-sized manufacturing company decides to build a redundant vSphere 5.1
Infrastructure cluster withHP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP
BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures for theirlocal and remote sites. The storage solution you propose is
an HP StoreVirtual 4000 with remote replication.
To stay within the budget, you decide to use the HP StoreVirtual VSA at the remote site.
Which feature of the VSA must you consider for future growth?
A. maximum 3 VSAs per site
B. maximum one LAN adapter per VSA
C. maximum one VSA per host
D. maximum 10 TB per VSA
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statements are true when zoning an HP MSA P2000 G3 FC array into a fabric? (Select
two.)
A. The array can be in multiple operating system zones.
B. Overlapping storage port zones may be configured
C. Zoning is required for all operating systems that access the array.
D. Zoning is not required for a single operating system.
E. The array required port-based zoning to be configured.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Your customer is a medium-sized insurance company. They have decided to build a redundant
vSphere 5.1infrastructure cluster with HP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant
HP BladeSystemc7000 enclosures, Flex Fabric Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiant BL660c
Gen8 Servers, with twodual port Flex-Fabric LOMs in a vSphere ESX 5.1 HA cluster.
Which components provide direct-attached storage for the virtual servers? (Select three.)
A. HP SmartArray P711m Controller
B. HP MSA P2000 G3 Combo
C. HP SmartArray P721m Controller
D. HP D6000 Disk Enclosures
E. HP 3 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
F. HP 6 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
Answer: C,D,F

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Explanation:
Up to six D6000 storage devices can be supported off a single BladeSystem enclosure for up to 1260
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using an HP Smart Array P721m controller, 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches, and the D6000. 6 Gb/s host
connectivity enables higher performance, eases configuration/deployment and broadens supported
features of an D6000 using HP Smart Array P721m controller and 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches.

NO.7 Which HP StoreVirtual feature is unique to the P4900 Storage System?
A. 8Gb FC node connectivity
B. support for Network RAID 5 only
C. SmartSSD Wear Gauge in CMC
D. support for hardware RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.8 When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an
IT service due toa major incident?
A. SLO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. SLA
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K33
Exam Name: Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions - Exam
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Exam Code: HP5-Z01D
Exam Name: Delta - Selling HP Networking Solutions
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NO.1 Which industry standard API mechanism for creating advanced web applications have
mainstream
web organizations like Google, Twitter, and Facebook adopted?
A. HTML
B. REST
C. SOAP
D. HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which HP service could you recommend to a customer that has selected their HP StoreAll
system
and arranged delivery?
A. HP Storage Modernization Service
B. HP Storage Impact Analysis Service
C. HP Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
D. HP Enterprise NAS Implementation Service
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which group in customer organizations has proved to be the strongest advocate for client
virtualization programs and should be targeted to identify the potential storage needs of a client
virtualization project?
A. CFO and Finance team
B. CIO and senior IT management
C. IT operations team
D. End Users
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the power of HP StoreOnce deduplication and Catalyst technology?
A. It enables deduplication tasks to be distributed across the whole information protection
infrastructure including remote offices and the datacenter
B. It provides best in class deduplication in the main data center with 7x the backup performance
of the competition
C. It provides deduplication only at the application server which means application servers can be
restored rapidly
D. It works with HP Data Protector, which means it has an industry leadership position in
enterprise backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer will achieve which three principle business benefits by deploying HP StoreOnce
technology?
A. Eliminate OpEx costs, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage data growth
B. Save money, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage remote office backup
C. Reduce business risk, meet agreed business SLAs. and reduce backup costs
D. Reduce business nsk. meet compliance needs, and improve backup flexibility
Answer: C

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NO.6 Analysts state that 50% of storage is connected to a virtual machine. What is a key implication
of
this fact for your sales campaigns?
A. It is too late to sell storage for virtualized servers to half the market.All sales campaigns should
focus on selling backup software to these clients
B. Users with traditional storage installations connected to virtual machines will be discovering the
limitations of their existing environments
C. The sales approach will be the same across the board - HP Converged Storage is the most
scalable and cost-effective platform for client virtualization
D. The only opportunity is to consider compliance needs with organizations that have already
onnected disk storage to virtual machines
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your customer's CIO is advocating a move to client virtualization. Which storage criterion is
NOT
relevant for a successful deployment?
A. Storage needs to be tailored to client visualization to deliver an effective ROI
B. Storage needs to be high performance
C. Storage needs to be highly available to meet client needs
D. Storage needs to be in a larger datacenter
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your enterprise customer is planning to build a virtualized Exchange 2010 system with
VMware.
They are considering VMware vMotion to help manage workload rebalancing across multiple
systems when adding storage capacity. What are key reasons why the customer should also
consider HP 3PAR Peer Motion? (Select two.)
A. HP 3PAR Peer Motion minimizes downtime through a central synchronized architecture that
provides mission critical availability.
B. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between multiple HP
StoreServ systems.
C. HP 3PAR Peer Motion uses a high performance Block Migration process that has been
optimized for HP ProLiant Gen8 servers.
D. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between HP 3PAR StoreServ
and any other 3rd party SAN environment
E. HP 3PAR Peer Motion can be combined with HP 3PAR Thin Persistence software to reduce
storage I/O and capacity requirements.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP5-K03D
Exam Name: Delta - Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-B105
Exam Name: Selling HP DesignJet Production Printing
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NO.1 How many front panel security levels can be setup by using the HP Embedded Webserver?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.2 What can pigment-based inks be used with?
A. Swellable coatings only
B. Porous coatings only
C. Both swellable and porous coatings, but swellable coatings are better
D. Both swellable and porous coatings, but porous coatings are better
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/ 2012 /HPdrupa12 /HP_LF_Graphics_Technical.pdf(
page 6)

NO.3 What is the correct hard disk and memory capacity available on the HP DesignJet T7100?
A. 120GB Hard drive and 128GB of virtual memory
B. 160GB Hard drive and 32GB of virtual memory
C. 160GB Hard drive and 64GB of virtual memory
D. 360GB Hard drive and 16GB of virtual memory
Answer: B

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Reference:http://shopping1.hp.com/is-bin/INTERSHOP .enfinity/WFS/WW-USSMBPublicStore-Site/e
n_US/-/USD/ViewProductDetail-Start?ProductUUID=z2MQ7EN53aIAAAEtoIRVIOG7&CatalogCatego
ryID=

NO.4 What is the target application for the Gloss Enhancer ink?
A. line drawings
B. high end photography
C. black and white photography
D. pantone matching
Answer: B

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6. Which staggered printhead system provides fast print speed on the HP DesignJet Z6200?
A. Double Array
B. Double Head
C. Double Swath
D. X2 printhead system
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.jenrite.co.nz/producte4eb4047-db4c-4661-804a-50da2890431e.aspx(third
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NO.5 Which HP DesignJet Z6200 printer feature controls the advance of media, thus improving print
quality even at high print speeds?
A. masking
B. spectrophotometer
C. dithering
D. OMAS
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B103
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Security - Technical
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NO.1 What happens as the result of inconsistent security methods from multiple print vendors in an
imaging and printing environment?
A. There is a reduction in IT spending.
B. IT departments can easily manage and monitor security across the imaging and printing
environment.
C. Overall system security is weakened.
D. Companies are forced to be more accountable for how information is managed, shared and
archived overtime.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use? (Select
three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.3 What are the advantages of paper-based assets? (Select three.)
A. easier to carry
B. easier to create
C. easier to copy
D. inexpensive to create
E. easier to read
F. easier to work on and make notations
G. easier to store and retrieve
Answer: C,E,G

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NO.4 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical
theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 How can people easily find information on how to hack into unsecured printers?
A. by searching the Internet
B. by searching www.hp.com
C. by searching on the word "hacking" on the NIST website
D. by using the Microsoft Windows Vista Help menu
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and
imaging devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Name: Introduction to Selling Servers, Storage, Networking and Services
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NO.1 What is the difference between a network switch and a network router?
A. A network switch connects devices for communication via Ethernet; a network router connects
networks to enable communication between them.
B. A network switch enables device connections over wireless networks; a network router enables
network communications over wireless networks.
C. A network switch enables multiple devices to share the same monitors; a network router enables
devices to use multiple monitors.
D. A network switch connects networks to enable communication; a network router connects
devices for communication over Ethernet.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which HP series of network switches is unmanaged?
A. HP 1400-series switches
B. HP 1800-series switches
C. HP 1900-senes switches
D. HP 2500-series switches
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The HP 1410 Switch series swicthes are fixed configuration fanless, unmanaged Gigabit and Fast
Ethernet switches.

NO.3 Which statement about types of care available from HP Technology Services is true?
A. HP Foundation care offers only hardware services while HP Core Services care offers hardware
and software services.
B. HP Reactive care offers only the standard warranty and on site services while HP Core Services
care offers full solution support
C. HP Foundation care offers only reactive support while HP Proactive care offers reactive support
and proactive support.
D. HP BreakFix care offers only hardware repairs while HP Core Services care offers software and
hardware support.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does ease of integration mean as one of the important IT trends for small and medium
business?
A. Full integration between security, ease of use, and scalability in computing
B. Integration toward the right computing environment to meet future requirements
C. Integration toward simplified growth with cost controls
D. A totally integrated solution across server, storage, and network infrastructures
Answer: B

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Explanation:
HP Transformation and Integration Services:
*HP Transformation and Integration Services provides consulting, custom development and
integration services to bring your IT services up to date with modern architectures and platforms.
*We modernize your applications to create a streamlined, agile environment that adapts quickly to
business needs.
*Transformation and Integration Services transforms your application environment to modern
platforms and architectures. We assess your IT environment to determine what you have and the
strategic value of your applications portfolio to the business. Then we help you transform to reach
your agility goals.

NO.5 Why does HP use the term polymorphic storage to describe HP 3PAR StoreServ storage?
A. Because it is future proof in that it exists in several forms and can grow with freedom in any
direction
B. Because it includes patented variable chunking with intelligent container matching for faster
backups
C. Because it can achieve twice the VM density in physical VMware vSphere environments
D. Because it reduces storage capacity by up to 50% thus increasing free disk capacity, while
decreasing service and support costs
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Unlike the dozens of fragmented storage products provided by other vendors, HP Converged Storage
provides a single storage system architecture with common data services for block, object and file
applications-delivering "polymorphic" simplicity-capable of meeting any need at any scale.
Note: Polymorphic Existence in several forms, shapes, & sizes
Redefining Storage Simplicity with HP Converged Storage

NO.6 Which benefit does an HP Care Pack offer that the HP standard product warranty does not?
A. Firmware and software upgrades
B. Replacement of defective parts
C. Support outside of standard business hours
D. Troubleshooting support
Answer: D

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Explanation:
HP Care Pack Service include: Software Technical Support Receive software support for HP and
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products.
Reference: http://h71016.www7.hp.com/html/helpmechoose/carepacks/care_packs_psg.asp

NO.7 Your healthcare customer wants to add a separate location for a family practice. They want
the new location to have seamless integration into the main location network and support a
maximum of five users. Which cost-effective HP networking solution should you recommend?
A. HP FlexManagement with an HP OfficeConnect switch
B. HP FlexFabric with an HP 2920 series switch
C. HP FlexFabric with an HP M220 access point
D. HP FlexBranch with an HP MSR930-series router
Answer: A

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Explanation:
HP OfficeConnect switch is for the small home or business network.

NO.8 What is the difference between computer memory and computer storage?
A. Computer memory is the storage hierarchy; computer storage is a subset of the computer
memory.
B. Computer memory handles data from input devices; computer storage handles data from output
devices.
C. Computer memory is the fast, volatile data-retention technologies; computer storage is the
slower, permanent data-retention technologies.
D. Computer memory includes the arithmetic unit of the CPU; computer storage includes the
control unit of the CPU.
Answer: C

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